Genesis 1:26

[101G]

But she is irrelevant in establishing lineage

You ERROR again, she's married to Joseph. ARE U READING THE BIBLE?

And to contend that there is a mother who gives birth to a body but that somehow that is distinct from the birth of God is ridiculous

scripture, Hebrews 10:5 "Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:". YOU ARE REPROVED AGAIN

You just contradicted yourself. If you claim Jesus is of the Davidic line ("the fruit of David body" in your words) but say that "NONE" kept his covenant then Jesus is included and didn't keep the covenant

post scripture where he sin at any time? book chapter and verse please.
now if you cannot produce a single scripture where the Lord Jesus did not keep the covenant, and sin against God, then all else you say is IRRELEVANT.

now let's get this straight before we go on...... one point at a time. NOW BOOK CHAPTER AND VERSE PLEASE

101G.

 

[101G]

He can't. All this does it prove that the text of John is a logical and semantic error. And even in the face of the obvious error, you believe it. Good job.

this IGNORANCE on your part. your LLR for today.
#1. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."
the LORD said that he is the First and "WITH" the Last. THIS IS THE SAME ONE PERSON WHO IS "FIRST" AND "LAST".

#2. Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.". SOUND LIKE TWO PEOPLE?

#3. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." BINGO, IT'S THE SAME ONE PERSON.

just as the Word is With God in John 1:1 .... John 1:1c states, it the same one person, "and the Word was God"

you neither know nor understand the bible.

101G.

 

[rosends]

You ERROR again, she's married to Joseph. ARE U READING THE BIBLE?

Ah, so you don't know how lineage is established in Judaism. Got it. Sometimes I forget how pervasive your lack of knowledge is.

scripture, Hebrews 10:5 "Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:". YOU ARE REPROVED AGAIN

Oh, look -- more useless Christian fiction rationalizing stuff.

post scripture where he sin at any time? book chapter and verse please.

He destroyed fruit trees. He caused financial loss to the owner of the pigs when he drove them away. He taught that non-kosher food is "clean". He told people to break the sabbath. He disrespected his mother. I mean, there are lots of others but if you are too lazy to read, then, whatever.

But if you are going to ignore all of this or just try to spin it, then anything else you say is irrelevant. Even not in all-caps.

 

[rosends]

this IGNORANCE on your part. your LLR for today.
#1. Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."
the LORD said that he is the First and "WITH" the Last. THIS IS THE SAME ONE PERSON WHO IS "FIRST" AND "LAST".

Oof. You completely misunderstand this verse. God says he will be with the last of the generations (the verse has "lasts" not "last" and the verse specifies the antecedent, the plural "dorot" -- generations). You really need to read better.

#2. Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.". SOUND LIKE TWO PEOPLE?

Nope -- it sounds like an "only" who is both first and last. I am the first and last father my daughter will ever have. Does that sound like 2 people?

#3. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." BINGO, IT'S THE SAME ONE PERSON.

Well, not exactly because God isn't a person, but it states that the "first" is identical with the "last" meaning they are the same and only a single thing.

just as the Word is With God in John 1:1 .... John 1:1c states, it the same one person, "and the Word was God"

you neither know nor understand the bible.

101G.

You are now clearly ignorant in 2 languages.

 

[101G]

The ten commandments given at Mt. Sinai require a Jewish person to honor their parents. Jesus in Matthew 12 refuses an audience with his mother. That is a sin.

no.

John 7. Jesus here speaks about "his time had not yet come". I think we can both agree that an important element of the story is that Jesus needed to die in a certain place at a certain time. Coordinating his own death to occur at a specific auspicious time is a form of sorcery. Sorcery is forbidden. It's a sin.

No, it's called prophecy.,

Exodus 20:12 requires honoring the parents.

who is his mother? who is my brothers and Sisters
he breaks no LAW or Commandments.

Matthew 12 shows Jesus dishonoring his mother.

ERROR is Mary his natural Mother? ... NO,

101G.

 

[101G]

Ah, so you don't know how lineage is established in Judaism. Got it. Sometimes I forget how pervasive your lack of knowledge is.

do you? .... he LEGALLY had the right to the throne, Mark 12:35 "And Jesus answered and said, while he taught in the temple, How say the scribes that Christ is the Son of David?" Mark 12:36 "For David himself said by the Holy Ghost, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool." Mark 12:37 "David therefore himself calleth him Lord; and whence is he then his son? And the common people heard him gladly."


Matthew 22:41 "While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them," Matthew 22:42 "Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David." Matthew 22:43 "He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying," Matthew 22:44 "The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?" Matthew 22:45 "If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" Matthew 22:46 "And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions."

well rosends, if David call Jesus his Lord then how is he his son? and he is his son.

I know, but you don't ....... (smile), ..... lol, lol, lol

101G.

 

[101G]

Oof. You completely misunderstand this verse. God says he will be with the last of the generations (the verse has "lasts" not "last" and the verse specifies the antecedent, the plural "dorot" -- generations). You really need to read better.

No, you better read Brown-Driver-Briggs' Hebrew Definitions right there at bible hub .... (smile) .... LoL, LoL, Oh dear, how Ignorant.

Nope -- it sounds like an "only" who is both first and last. I am the first and last father my daughter will ever have. Does that sound like 2 people?

sound like, and IS are two different things ...... LOL, but U cannot answer, because U don't KNOW ....... Smile

Well, not exactly because God isn't a person,

since u know nothing else, as well as here. you LLR for today,
the definition of a PERSON.is: a person's moral or emotional nature or sense of identity:
another word for Person is Soul. do not God have a Soul? let's check the record. Isaiah 1:14 "Your new moons and your appointed feasts my soul hateth: they are a trouble unto me; I am weary to bear them."

well that just check the LIE, "God is not a person".

but it states that the "first" is identical with the "last" meaning they are the same and only a single thing.

Another ERROR on your part, the TERM "ALSO" means, in addition; too: not Identical ... ;lol, lol, lol, oh dear.

101G.

 

[rosends]

do you?

actually, yes, I do. You don't.

.... he LEGALLY had the right to the throne,

No, he hadn't. But let's play this out, just for fun. If he was of the line of David, that would have put him among a huge group. Many families stem from David. So what? Does each of them have some right? See, that's not how things work so your argument fails.

Mark 12:35 "And Jesus answered and said, while he taught in the temple, How say the scribes that Christ is the Son of David?" Mark 12:36 "For David himself said by the Holy Ghost, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool." Mark 12:37 "David therefore himself calleth him Lord; and whence is he then his son? And the common people heard him gladly."

And again, you try to validate the accuracy of your statements by invoking a text whose authority requires that one believe in the accuracy of your statements? Hilarious.

Matthew 22:41 "While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them," Matthew 22:42 "Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David." Matthew 22:43 "He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying," Matthew 22:44 "The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?" Matthew 22:45 "If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" Matthew 22:46 "And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions."

This section is some of the funniest stuff ever. Not only are there methodological problems with the account, but there are logical ones as well. Do you read the stuff you post? Ever?

well rosends, if David call Jesus his Lord then how is he his son? and he is his son.

But he didn't. So he isn't. Your illogic is crazy again, and in 2 ways:
1) According to the verses Jesus is said to be son of David, but David is gonna bow to his son, so Jesus is the one David bows to, but since David bows to lord, Jesus must be lord". That fails because it means that ANY of David's sons (and he had a few) must have been your messiah because as a son, he would have been bowed to by David.

2) The claim "how then does David, in spirit, call him lord?" Thing is, David doesn't. So the entire question fails.but if he doesn't then he isn't his son. Your conditional (If David then call hinm lord) is ludicrous. Since you clearly don't know the source material maybe you should stop while you're behind.

 

[rosends]

No, you better read Brown-Driver-Briggs' Hebrew Definitions right there at bible hub .... (smile) .... LoL, LoL, Oh dear, how Ignorant.

Do you understand how that dictionary works? It gives instances of the use of the root. It then attaches its definitions to the root form, so just because you see a definition, that doesn't mean that the simple form of the word means that. It means that there is a use of the root in a word which means that.

You are forgetting that your argument relies on the claim that "echad" means "first."

I made the statement that one of the ways in which echad means first is when it is constructed with a preffixative definite article (Ha'echad). The definite article would have the word mean "the one" which could then be interpreted as "first."

In the situation you cite, however, it is specifically not written in that structure of "HAechad" instead having only "echad." There is no biblical case in which the simple structure of "echad" would mean "first".

"First" is definition 7 and very few examples are given. You should learn Hebrew and look them up and see the actual structure of the word used.

sound like, and IS are two different things ...... LOL, but U cannot answer, because U don't KNOW ....... Smile

The phrase "sounds like" was used by you in message 382. I used the language of your question so if you have a question about it, ask yourself.

I'm also using an idiom-filled version of English which you seem not to know. I shall try to be simpler and more direct in order to help you understand.

the definition of a PERSON.is: a person's moral or emotional nature or sense of identity:

according to what? Look here and find that.

another word for Person is Soul. do not God have a Soul? let's check the record. Isaiah 1:14 "Your new moons and your appointed feasts my soul hateth: they are a trouble unto me; I am weary to bear them."

First, the statement "another word for Person is Soul" isn't really accurate. When we say "70 souls drowned" we are using a socio-cultural connotation which claims (because of the Christian-countries sourced concepts) that people have souls and that they are connected to religious schema. In the bible, the text might read "70 souls went down to Egypt" which means "70 people" because the text is written with the assumption that people have souls. This is called synecdoche.

The second point is that you must be an absolute literalist and not understand the human tendency to anthropomorphize God, or the use of the audience's idiom when writing. So noted.

Another ERROR on your part, the TERM "ALSO" means, in addition; too: not Identical ... ;lol, lol, lol, oh dear.

why did you insist that "also" cannot be identical? A cup is a utensil and also a measure. He is a democrat and also left-handed

If you look up Is 44:6 you will see that the word "also" isn't used anyway.

You really don't know how language works. Or the bible.

 

[dybmh]

no.

No, it's called prophecy.,

who is his mother? who is my brothers and Sisters
he breaks no LAW or Commandments.

ERROR is Mary his natural Mother? ... NO,

101G.

Denying his mother and replacing her with someone else is the definition of "dishonor".

Dishonor - fail to observe or respect.

And it's not a prophecy if a person needs to take action to make it happen.

Sorry, the story does not describe a perfect Jew. You want him to be perfect, I understand. But you probably don't know enough about Jewish law to identify the faults.

 

[101G]

Denying his mother and replacing her with someone else is the definition of "dishonor".

The Lord Jesus don't have a Mother...... understand?
he's without mother or father.

Sorry, the story does not describe a perfect Jew. You want him to be perfect, I understand. But you probably don't know enough about Jewish law to identify the faults.

101G
he is "PERFECT", without sin. if he sinned anywhere, it would have been recorded. but it's not...

.

 

[101G]

You are forgetting that your argument relies on the claim that "echad" means "first."

that's u. once again, the Echad of Goid is First ..... and .... Last. got it?

Do you understand how that dictionary works?

yes, do u? this is why the scriptures states "study to show thyself approved unto God".

First, the statement "another word for Person is Soul" isn't really accurate.

so, are u say that a person can be without a soul? ,,,,, hog wash...... lol, lol, lol, you're reproved.

I'm also using an idiom-filled version of English which you seem not to know. I shall try to be simpler and more direct in order to help you understand.

U cannot even understand the First and the Last concepts of the Echad in Ordinal Designation yet. get that down first.... ok.

If you look up Is 44:6 you will see that the word "also" isn't used anyway.

44:6? .... check yourself.

why did you insist that "also" cannot be identical? A cup is a utensil and also a measure. He is a democrat and also left-handed

identical? how, in quality, or quantity....
try again

now what about those scriptures that show the Lord Jesus sinned? got em, yet..... thought nso.

101G,

 

[101G]

No, he hadn't. But let's play this out, just for fun. If he was of the line of David, that would have put him among a huge group. Many families stem from David. So what? Does each of them have some right? See, that's not how things work so your argument fails.

personal opinion again? lol, lol, lol,

This section is some of the funniest stuff ever.

so we take it that you're IGNORANT of Psalms 110:1 ... thought so.

101G.

 

[rosends]

The Lord Jesus don't have a Mother...... understand?
he's without mother or father.

So he has no lineage to claim royalty. Thanks.

he is "PERFECT", without sin. if he sinned anywhere, it would have been recorded. but it's not...

.

and yet it is recorded that he sinned. I listed the sins. You ignored it.

 

[rosends]

that's u. once again, the Echad of Goid is First ..... and .... Last. got it?

No, echad means "one". Got it?

yes, do u? this is why the scriptures states "study to show thyself approved unto God".

If you knew how a dictionary works you wouldn't claim waht you did. If you knew anything else, you wouldn't cite Gospel fictions to try and prove anything to me.

so, are u say that a person can be without a soul? ,,,,, hog wash...... lol, lol, lol, you're reproved.

Clearly, you have comprehension issues and speak from a very narrow field of experience. Calling a person a soul is a linguistic conflation borne of a cultural-centrism. There are plenty of people who say that one can be a person and not have a soul. I'm sirry that you have such blinders on that you dobn't know that.

U cannot even understand the First and the Last concepts of the Echad in Ordinal Designation yet. get that down first.... ok.

You can't understand that the ordinal use is limited to structure and context, neither of which is satisfied in the example you gave. You are running in circles and don't understand things here.

identical? how, in quality, or quantity....
try again

Could be either. You should learn English.

now what about those scriptures that show the Lord Jesus sinned? got em, yet..... thought nso.

101G,

yes, I presented them. But in order to help you out, here they are:
destroying a fruit tree -- Mark 11:12-14
stealing (causing a loss of possessions) -- Mark 8:30-33
stealing an animal -- Matthew 21
he taught that non-acceptable food was acceptable -- Mark 7:14-19
he ate food that legally was only for priests -- Mark 2:26

there are others (he turned over the money changing tables which were required by Jewish law and doing so lost people their livelihood and stopped pilgrims from fulfilling textual obligations -- that's also a sin) but the point is, he clearly sinned and you now have to go do some gymnastics to try and justify sinful behavior.

 

[rosends]

personal opinion again? lol, lol, lol,

No, simple logic which you can't follow.

so we take it that you're IGNORANT of Psalms 110:1 ... thought so.

101G.

You are wrong and you don't know 110:1.

here it is -- לְדָוִ֗ד מִ֫זְמ֥וֹר נְאֻ֤ם יְהֹוָ֨ה ׀ לַֽאדֹנִ֗י שֵׁ֥ב לִֽימִינִ֑י עַד־אָשִׁ֥ית אֹ֝יְבֶ֗יךָ הֲדֹ֣ם לְרַגְלֶֽיךָ

let's discuss it. Betcha can't...

 

[101G]

No, simple logic which you can't follow.

your Logic is faulty, get the Holy Ghost and Learn from Him.

You are wrong and you don't know 110:1.

here it is -- לְדָוִ֗ד מִ֫זְמ֥וֹר נְאֻ֤ם יְהֹוָ֨ה ׀ לַֽאדֹנִ֗י שֵׁ֥ב לִֽימִינִ֑י עַד־אָשִׁ֥ית אֹ֝יְבֶ֗יךָ הֲדֹ֣ם לְרַגְלֶֽיךָ

let's discuss it. Betcha can't...

ok, let's go Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."
here is the ECHAD in full view as Ordinal First, and the Ordinal Last,
the plurality of God as ONE in the ECHAD of Father and Son, the SAME one person diversified in Flesh.

10G.

 

[dybmh]

The Lord Jesus don't have a Mother...... understand?
he's without mother or father.

I hear you. Can you bring something from your scripture to support it? And how do you understand Jesus' lineage as documented in your scripture? Was it false?

he is "PERFECT", without sin. if he sinned anywhere, it would have been recorded. but it's not...

It's a lovely thought, but, to expect Jesus' biggest fans, his disciples and the authors of the gospels to report a transgression is a little unrealistic.

 

[rosends]

your Logic is faulty, get the Holy Ghost and Learn from Him.

ok, let's go Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."
here is the ECHAD in full view as Ordinal First, and the Ordinal Last,
the plurality of God as ONE in the ECHAD of Father and Son, the SAME one person diversified in Flesh.

10G.

That verse has no capital letters, no use of echad, and the two words that you see as "lord" indicate 2 different subjects because they are, in Hebrew, 2 different words. You fail completely.

 

[101G]

I hear you. Can you bring something from your scripture to support it? And how do you understand Jesus' lineage as documented in your scripture? Was it false?

Luke 1:35 "And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing, (thing, here means flesh), which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God".

the word overshadow, it's the Greek word G1982 ἐπισκιάζω episkiazo (ep-ee-skee-ad'-zo) v.
1. to cast a shade upon
2. (by analogy) to envelop in a haze of brilliancy
3. (figuratively) to invest with preternatural influence
take note of the 3rd. reference. "to invest with preternatural influence", what do preternatural means. It means, "out of the ordinary course of nature; exceptional or abnormal". the meaning here, not in the natural way of conception between a man and a women. this body as I have said, God conceived or God made, and “formed” in Mary’s womb. Did he not formed Jeremiah body in his mothers womb before he was born, or brought forth. God spoke a whole universe into existence, so also a fleshly body.

now his lineage, not a false lineage, but a "LEGAL" lineage by the sheer birth in the house of David, by the surrogate mother Marry. without biological mother or biological father, ..... this is just 2 easy.

It's a lovely thought, but, to expect Jesus' biggest fans, his disciples and the authors of the gospels to report a transgression is a little unrealistic.

Hebrews 4:14 "Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession."Hebrews 4:15 "For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin."
as said, personal opinions do not move me, scriptures do.

101G.