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nPeace

Veteran Member
My main question is - did the Word have a beginning or was he created at some point? Colossians 1:16 says that all things were created by Him. That seems to say that the Word existed before anything else and had no beginning. I believe that the Father and the Word are both eternal, they have no beginning or end. No scripture says that the Word had a beginning. Yes, Jesus was the first born of God's children but that is talking about the human Jesus who did have a beginning. But when he was the Word there is nothing that talks about a beginning. Why can't the Father and Word both be eternal. God is eternal and God consists of the Father and the Word. Can you find a scripture that exactly says the Word was created? Or Jesus was created? Being the first born is not the same as being created. Any ideas?
You didn't answer the questions. Would you be able to do that?
You just commented on part of one verse, You left out the first half of the verse. Any reason why?
Could you answer the questions, yes or no, since one or the other is requested?
For example, one question asked, Is the Word the first of God's creation? Colossians 1:15, 16
You said, "Yes, Jesus was the first born of God's children but that is talking about the human Jesus who did have a beginning. But when he was the Word there is nothing that talks about a beginning."
So I am not sure, and I don't want to guess. Is your answer yes, or no?

I'll try to make it easier.
1. Is the Word the only begotten son of God? John 1:3; 14-18; 3:16 Yes or No
2.
Is the Word the first of God's creation? Colossians 1:15, 16 Yes or No
3.
Was the Word the only begotten son of God, and the first born of all his creation, while in heaven? Yes or No
Could you explain the reasons for your answers please.
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
You didn't answer the questions. Would you be able to do that?
You just commented on part of one verse, You left out the first half of the verse. Any reason why?
Could you answer the questions, yes or no, since one or the other is requested?
For example, one question asked, Is the Word the first of God's creation? Colossians 1:15, 16
You said, "Yes, Jesus was the first born of God's children but that is talking about the human Jesus who did have a beginning. But when he was the Word there is nothing that talks about a beginning."
So I am not sure, and I don't want to guess. Is your answer yes, or no?

I'll try to make it easier.
1. Is the Word the only begotten son of God? John 1:3; 14-18; 3:16 Yes or No
2.
Is the Word the first of God's creation? Colossians 1:15, 16 Yes or No
3.
Was the Word the only begotten son of God, and the first born of all his creation, while in heaven? Yes or No
Could you explain the reasons for your answers please.
Let me see. 1. Jesus is the only begotten son of God. Before being born in human form he was known as the Word. But the Word had not been begotten before the time of Jesus. 2. This verse does NOT say the word created. 3. NO The Word had not been born while still in Heaven. Again none of these verses use the word created to describe the Word. They say the Word was there BEFORE anything was created. The Word is eternal like the Father and has no beginning or end.
 

nPeace

Veteran Member
Let me see. 1. Jesus is the only begotten son of God. Before being born in human form he was known as the Word. But the Word had not been begotten before the time of Jesus. 2. This verse does NOT say the word created. 3. NO The Word had not been born while still in Heaven. Again none of these verses use the word created to describe the Word. They say the Word was there BEFORE anything was created. The Word is eternal like the Father and has no beginning or end.
Okay.
So you agree that 1. the word is the only begotten son of God. Correct?
What do you mean by, "the Word had not been begotten before the time of Jesus"? Why do you say that? What scriptures agree with you?
John 3:16

2. You say, "the verse does NOT say the word created." What does it say? Colossians 1:15, 16

Which verse says, "the Word was there BEFORE anything was created. The Word is eternal like the Father and has no beginning or end."?
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Okay.
So you agree that 1. the word is the only begotten son of God. Correct?
What do you mean by, "the Word had not been begotten before the time of Jesus"? Why do you say that? What scriptures agree with you?
John 3:16

2. You say, "the verse does NOT say the word created." What does it say? Colossians 1:15, 16

Which verse says, "the Word was there BEFORE anything was created. The Word is eternal like the Father and has no beginning or end."?
Col. 1:15 says the firstborn of every creature. Means the Word existed before anything else.Nothing about being created. Can you find a verse that uses the word "created" to describe the Word? I don't think so. John 1:1 says the Word was with God and the Word was God. The Word was God. God is eternal and has no beginning or end. God was not created and the Word , being God, was not created.
 

nPeace

Veteran Member
Col. 1:15 says the firstborn of every creature. Means the Word existed before anything else.Nothing about being created. Can you find a verse that uses the word "created" to describe the Word? I don't think so. John 1:1 says the Word was with God and the Word was God. The Word was God. God is eternal and has no beginning or end. God was not created and the Word , being God, was not created.
Did not the scripture say, then that the word had a beginning - first born?
I am glad to see you finally acknowledged that Colossians 1:15 refers to the word... because it does, and earlier you said this...
Yes, Jesus was the first born of God's children but that is talking about the human Jesus who did have a beginning.
So you also acknowledged that first born means, have a beginning, and it does, no doubt about it.
That does mesh squarely with Revelation 3:14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;
So finally, we agree, as the scriptures say, the word had a beginning.

...but I'm sure you aren't done fighting this, so let's hear you.
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Well first of all what about John 1:1 The Word was God. God is eternal and has no beginning. If the scripture is correct then the Word is God and has no beginning. Why is this a problem? Why can't the Word and the Father both be eternal with no beginning?
Did not the scripture say, then that the word had a beginning - first born?
I am glad to see you finally acknowledged that Colossians 1:15 refers to the word... because it does, and earlier you said this...
Yes, Jesus was the first born of God's children but that is talking about the human Jesus who did have a beginning.
So you also acknowledged that first born means, have a beginning, and it does, no doubt about it.
That does mesh squarely with Revelation 3:14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God;
So finally, we agree, as the scriptures say, the word had a beginning.

...but I'm sure you aren't done fighting this, so let's hear you.
No, not fighting, just asking. What about John 1:1 the Word was God. Why can't the Word and the Father both be eternal with no beginning? Both are God. Both are eternal. Neither was created.
 

Thief

Rogue Theologian
So my question is: why does "God" refer to himself in plural? (Let us create...)

I did some research, and the Trinity isn't even mentioned in the Bible (at least not as "Trinity", there are hints of it). Why would a "God" that claims to be only God refer to what looks like others like him (as if he was one of many; "our likeness")?

*I'm an atheist (just in case)
I strongly suspect....

having made declaration....Let there be light
God is then very much aware.....He is the First

First in mind and heart....in Spirit

the creation responds to His Voice
but it does not really.....respond

so.....placing Himself in more than one place
and many believe He is actually everywhere
He is then speaking to His own Voice.....His own Echo

that situation could well be.....God and the angelic
 

nPeace

Veteran Member
Well first of all what about John 1:1 The Word was God. God is eternal and has no beginning. If the scripture is correct then the Word is God and has no beginning. Why is this a problem? Why can't the Word and the Father both be eternal with no beginning?

No, not fighting, just asking. What about John 1:1 the Word was God. Why can't the Word and the Father both be eternal with no beginning? Both are God. Both are eternal. Neither was created.
Don't you see the problem, lostwanderingsoul?
Look closely.
You ask, "Why can't the Word and the Father both be eternal with no beginning?"
Didn't we just answer that? Didn't you just acknowledge that, according to the Bible, at Collosians 1:15, the Word had a beginning?

The problem is, to say otherwise is to go against that fact, and in so doing you would in reality be going against a basic law of truth - Either A is B, or A is not B. A cannot be B, and at the same time not be B. Either the Word had a beginning, or the Word did not have a beginning - Cannot be both.
You have to make up your mind.
If you say the word had no beginning, you have no scriptural basis for that, and your view conflicts with the scriptures.

If you accept the scriptures, including Colossians 1:15, which shows the Word had a beginning, there is no conflict with scriptures - including John 1:1.
Nowhere in John 1 does it say the Word is eternal, with no beginning. That would be your version of scripture.

I'll get back to John 1:1 in a moment, but first I want to say, I understand what your position is on who, or what God is, but I see many problems with that, also.

Let me explain what I mean.
Earlier, you said...
1. There were two "persons" in existence for all time. The Father and the Word and the two together made up God. ... So there is no trinity but there is a Father and a Son who together are called God.

You gave an analogy in an attempt to explain.
2. Say there is a man named John Doe and he has a wife named Jane Doe and a son named Tom Doe. They are three different people but they are one Jones family. One family with several members. There is one God but that one God is like a family made up of a Father and a Son. Jesus is not the Father and the Father is not Jesus but together they are God.

Then you said this...
3. OK back to the original question. Why does God refer to himself as "us" in Genesis 1:26? Answer - because there was the one reffered to as God and the one reffered to as the Word. That is two beings. Plural. Us. And both of these beings make up the one and only God. There is no third person which some people include to make a trinity. But there are two.

I wanted to zero in on this, because I thought I understood what you believed, until you said something else later, in another thread
I usually take careful note of everything people say, as I am trying to understand their viewpoint. So I took note of your words in this post.

4. I think of God as a family. You have one family but several members of that one family. You have one God but several members or parts of that one God. My problem with the idea of a trinity is that it forever limits God to those three persons. But God has said that He wants to adopt others into His family. Don't many people say they are children of God? Some day God's family will consist of millions of people. The trinity idea denies this possibility. God is not limited to three.

So that last bit helped me to understand your view much clearer... I think... I hope.
I tried to visualize it.
[GALLERY=media, 8857]Gdanim by nPeace posted Feb 26, 2019 at 12:55 PM[/GALLERY]

Your view is that God is, correct me if I am wrong, a state rather than a being or entity. My guess is... infinity, but made up of beings, or entities - the father (F), and the son (S), and as time progresses, angels (A), humans (P).
So basically God is the circle in my animation.
Oh, by the way, the Angels (A) that disappeared are the fallen. :D

That's a new one... an interesting idea imo. It steps away from the three-in-one concept (Trinity out), to embrace a two-in-one, but with extensions.
This is to me a good example of how we have more than 30,000 different Christian religions.

The first problem we dealt with - The son came after, so you would need to adjust it to the father (F), then the son (S), and as time progresses, angels (A), humans (P).
However, there is no need for me to highlight all the problems this has, so I will just mention one.
So you are teaching someone, and you explain this concept to them. You explain that you don't say that you pray to God, you pray to the Father, because God is both the father and son, but not limited to them alone, it includes the angels, and those humans who go to heaven.
So your student says, "Okay, so in Genesis God - which is the father and son - created the heavens and earth"
Where are the angels at this time? If the angels exists, why are they not part of God? Or is the text wrong? Should it have read, "In the beginning, the father, or the son, or... created the heavens and earth?"
What about when the angel said, at Revelation 19:10, "Worship God!”? Did he mean worship the father, son, angels and humans? Or is the text wrong... should it have read, "Worship the father, and son."?

I see many problems with your concept lostwanderingsoul, but you are the one that believes it, not I. So I suppose you will deal with those in your own way.

Concerning John 1, the following information may be helpful.
I'll highlight the parts that deal specifically with key points. Although reading all of it, I think, would be great. Thanks for the conversation. :)
*** NEW WORLD TRANSLATION - Study Edition : John Study Notes - Chapter 1 ***
the beginning: In the Scriptures, the meaning of the term “beginning” depends on the context. Here [John 1:1] the Greek word ar·kheʹ cannot refer to “the beginning” of God the Creator, for he is eternal, having no beginning. (Psalms 90:2) It must, therefore, refer to the time when God began creating. God’s first creation was termed the Word, a heavenly designation of the one who became Jesus. (John 1:14-17) So Jesus is the only one who can rightly be called “the firstborn of all creation.” (Colossians 1:15) He was “the beginning of the creation by God” (Revelation 3:14), so he existed before other spirit creatures and the physical universe were created. In fact, by means of Jesus, “all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth.” - Colossians 1:16; for other examples of how the term “beginning” is used, see study note on John 6:64.
the Word: Or “the Logos.” Greek, ho loʹgos. Here used as a title, it is also used at John 1:14 and Revelation 19:13. John identified the one to whom this title belongs, namely, Jesus. This title was applied to Jesus during his prehuman existence as a spirit creature, during his ministry on earth as a perfect man, and after his exaltation to heaven. Jesus was God’s Word of communication, or Spokesman, for conveying information and instructions to the Creator’s other spirit sons and to humans. So it is reasonable to think that prior to Jesus’ coming to earth, Jehovah on many occasions communicated with mankind through the Word, His angelic mouthpiece. - Genesis 16:7-11; 22:11; 31:11; Exodus 3:2-5; Judges 2:1-4; 6:11, 12; 13:3.
with: Lit., “toward.” In this context, the Greek preposition pros implies close proximity and fellowship. It also indicates separate persons, in this case, the Word and the only true God.

the Word was a god: Or “the Word was divine [or, “a godlike one”].” This statement by John describes a quality or characteristic of “the Word” (Greek, ho loʹgos; see study note on the Word in this verse), that is, Jesus Christ. The Word’s preeminent position as the firstborn Son of God through whom God created all other things is a basis for describing him as “a god; a godlike one; divine; a divine being.” Many translators favor the rendering “the Word was God,” equating him with God Almighty. However, there are good reasons for saying that John did not mean that “the Word” was the same as Almighty God. First, the preceding clause and the following clause both clearly state that “the Word” was “with God.” Also, the Greek word the·osʹ occurs three times in verses 1 and 2. In the first and third occurrences, the·osʹ is preceded by the definite article in Greek; in the second occurrence, there is no article. Many scholars agree that the absence of the definite article before the second the·osʹ is significant. When the article is used in this context, the·osʹ refers to God Almighty. On the other hand, the absence of the article in this grammatical construction makes the·osʹ qualitative in meaning and describes a characteristic of “the Word.” Therefore, a number of Bible translations in English, French, and German render the text in a way similar to the New World Translation, conveying the idea that “the Word” was “a god; divine; a divine being; of divine kind; godlike.” Supporting this view, ancient translations of John’s Gospel into the Sahidic and the Bohairic dialects of the Coptic language, probably produced in the third and fourth centuries C.E., handle the first occurrence of the·osʹ at John 1:1 differently from the second occurrence. These renderings highlight a quality of “the Word,” that his nature was like that of God, but they do not equate him with his Father, the almighty God. In harmony with this verse, Colossians 2:9 describes Christ as having “all the fullness of the divine quality.” And according to 2 Peter 1:4, even Christ’s joint heirs would “become sharers in divine nature.” Additionally, in the Septuagint translation, the Greek word the·osʹ is the usual equivalent of the Hebrew words rendered “God,” ʼel and ʼelo·himʹ, which are thought to convey the basic meaning “Mighty One; Strong One.” These Hebrew words are used with reference to the almighty God, other gods, and humans. (See study note on John 10:34.) Calling the Word “a god,” or “a mighty one,” would be in line with the prophecy at Isaiah 9:6, foretelling that the Messiah would be called “Mighty God” (not “Almighty God”) and that he would be the “Eternal Father” of all those privileged to live as his subjects. The zeal of his own Father, “Jehovah of armies,” would accomplish this. - Isaiah 9:7.

From the material, you can see that all the members in heaven with the father are indeed, one family of God-like, or divine beings. So you are not very far off, but there are just a few areas that need adjusting, in order to fit scripture - like God being one, and not made up of more than one entity (Deuteronomy 6:4), and the Word not being eternal, and having a beginning (Colossians 1:15; Revelation 3:14).

Take care.
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Don't you see the problem, lostwanderingsoul?
Look closely.
You ask, "Why can't the Word and the Father both be eternal with no beginning?"
Didn't we just answer that? Didn't you just acknowledge that, according to the Bible, at Collosians 1:15, the Word had a beginning?

The problem is, to say otherwise is to go against that fact, and in so doing you would in reality be going against a basic law of truth - Either A is B, or A is not B. A cannot be B, and at the same time not be B. Either the Word had a beginning, or the Word did not have a beginning - Cannot be both.
You have to make up your mind.
If you say the word had no beginning, you have no scriptural basis for that, and your view conflicts with the scriptures.

If you accept the scriptures, including Colossians 1:15, which shows the Word had a beginning, there is no conflict with scriptures - including John 1:1.
Nowhere in John 1 does it say the Word is eternal, with no beginning. That would be your version of scripture.

I'll get back to John 1:1 in a moment, but first I want to say, I understand what your position is on who, or what God is, but I see many problems with that, also.

Let me explain what I mean.
Earlier, you said...
1. There were two "persons" in existence for all time. The Father and the Word and the two together made up God. ... So there is no trinity but there is a Father and a Son who together are called God.

You gave an analogy in an attempt to explain.
2. Say there is a man named John Doe and he has a wife named Jane Doe and a son named Tom Doe. They are three different people but they are one Jones family. One family with several members. There is one God but that one God is like a family made up of a Father and a Son. Jesus is not the Father and the Father is not Jesus but together they are God.

Then you said this...
3. OK back to the original question. Why does God refer to himself as "us" in Genesis 1:26? Answer - because there was the one reffered to as God and the one reffered to as the Word. That is two beings. Plural. Us. And both of these beings make up the one and only God. There is no third person which some people include to make a trinity. But there are two.

I wanted to zero in on this, because I thought I understood what you believed, until you said something else later, in another thread
I usually take careful note of everything people say, as I am trying to understand their viewpoint. So I took note of your words in this post.

4. I think of God as a family. You have one family but several members of that one family. You have one God but several members or parts of that one God. My problem with the idea of a trinity is that it forever limits God to those three persons. But God has said that He wants to adopt others into His family. Don't many people say they are children of God? Some day God's family will consist of millions of people. The trinity idea denies this possibility. God is not limited to three.

So that last bit helped me to understand your view much clearer... I think... I hope.
I tried to visualize it.
[GALLERY=media, 8857]Gdanim by nPeace posted Feb 26, 2019 at 12:55 PM[/GALLERY]

Your view is that God is, correct me if I am wrong, a state rather than a being or entity. My guess is... infinity, but made up of beings, or entities - the father (F), and the son (S), and as time progresses, angels (A), humans (P).
So basically God is the circle in my animation.
Oh, by the way, the Angels (A) that disappeared are the fallen. :D

That's a new one... an interesting idea imo. It steps away from the three-in-one concept (Trinity out), to embrace a two-in-one, but with extensions.
This is to me a good example of how we have more than 30,000 different Christian religions.

The first problem we dealt with - The son came after, so you would need to adjust it to the father (F), then the son (S), and as time progresses, angels (A), humans (P).
However, there is no need for me to highlight all the problems this has, so I will just mention one.
So you are teaching someone, and you explain this concept to them. You explain that you don't say that you pray to God, you pray to the Father, because God is both the father and son, but not limited to them alone, it includes the angels, and those humans who go to heaven.
So your student says, "Okay, so in Genesis God - which is the father and son - created the heavens and earth"
Where are the angels at this time? If the angels exists, why are they not part of God? Or is the text wrong? Should it have read, "In the beginning, the father, or the son, or... created the heavens and earth?"
What about when the angel said, at Revelation 19:10, "Worship God!”? Did he mean worship the father, son, angels and humans? Or is the text wrong... should it have read, "Worship the father, and son."?

I see many problems with your concept lostwanderingsoul, but you are the one that believes it, not I. So I suppose you will deal with those in your own way.

Concerning John 1, the following information may be helpful.
I'll highlight the parts that deal specifically with key points. Although reading all of it, I think, would be great. Thanks for the conversation. :)
*** NEW WORLD TRANSLATION - Study Edition : John Study Notes - Chapter 1 ***
the beginning: In the Scriptures, the meaning of the term “beginning” depends on the context. Here [John 1:1] the Greek word ar·kheʹ cannot refer to “the beginning” of God the Creator, for he is eternal, having no beginning. (Psalms 90:2) It must, therefore, refer to the time when God began creating. God’s first creation was termed the Word, a heavenly designation of the one who became Jesus. (John 1:14-17) So Jesus is the only one who can rightly be called “the firstborn of all creation.” (Colossians 1:15) He was “the beginning of the creation by God” (Revelation 3:14), so he existed before other spirit creatures and the physical universe were created. In fact, by means of Jesus, “all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth.” - Colossians 1:16; for other examples of how the term “beginning” is used, see study note on John 6:64.
the Word: Or “the Logos.” Greek, ho loʹgos. Here used as a title, it is also used at John 1:14 and Revelation 19:13. John identified the one to whom this title belongs, namely, Jesus. This title was applied to Jesus during his prehuman existence as a spirit creature, during his ministry on earth as a perfect man, and after his exaltation to heaven. Jesus was God’s Word of communication, or Spokesman, for conveying information and instructions to the Creator’s other spirit sons and to humans. So it is reasonable to think that prior to Jesus’ coming to earth, Jehovah on many occasions communicated with mankind through the Word, His angelic mouthpiece. - Genesis 16:7-11; 22:11; 31:11; Exodus 3:2-5; Judges 2:1-4; 6:11, 12; 13:3.
with: Lit., “toward.” In this context, the Greek preposition pros implies close proximity and fellowship. It also indicates separate persons, in this case, the Word and the only true God.

the Word was a god: Or “the Word was divine [or, “a godlike one”].” This statement by John describes a quality or characteristic of “the Word” (Greek, ho loʹgos; see study note on the Word in this verse), that is, Jesus Christ. The Word’s preeminent position as the firstborn Son of God through whom God created all other things is a basis for describing him as “a god; a godlike one; divine; a divine being.” Many translators favor the rendering “the Word was God,” equating him with God Almighty. However, there are good reasons for saying that John did not mean that “the Word” was the same as Almighty God. First, the preceding clause and the following clause both clearly state that “the Word” was “with God.” Also, the Greek word the·osʹ occurs three times in verses 1 and 2. In the first and third occurrences, the·osʹ is preceded by the definite article in Greek; in the second occurrence, there is no article. Many scholars agree that the absence of the definite article before the second the·osʹ is significant. When the article is used in this context, the·osʹ refers to God Almighty. On the other hand, the absence of the article in this grammatical construction makes the·osʹ qualitative in meaning and describes a characteristic of “the Word.” Therefore, a number of Bible translations in English, French, and German render the text in a way similar to the New World Translation, conveying the idea that “the Word” was “a god; divine; a divine being; of divine kind; godlike.” Supporting this view, ancient translations of John’s Gospel into the Sahidic and the Bohairic dialects of the Coptic language, probably produced in the third and fourth centuries C.E., handle the first occurrence of the·osʹ at John 1:1 differently from the second occurrence. These renderings highlight a quality of “the Word,” that his nature was like that of God, but they do not equate him with his Father, the almighty God. In harmony with this verse, Colossians 2:9 describes Christ as having “all the fullness of the divine quality.” And according to 2 Peter 1:4, even Christ’s joint heirs would “become sharers in divine nature.” Additionally, in the Septuagint translation, the Greek word the·osʹ is the usual equivalent of the Hebrew words rendered “God,” ʼel and ʼelo·himʹ, which are thought to convey the basic meaning “Mighty One; Strong One.” These Hebrew words are used with reference to the almighty God, other gods, and humans. (See study note on John 10:34.) Calling the Word “a god,” or “a mighty one,” would be in line with the prophecy at Isaiah 9:6, foretelling that the Messiah would be called “Mighty God” (not “Almighty God”) and that he would be the “Eternal Father” of all those privileged to live as his subjects. The zeal of his own Father, “Jehovah of armies,” would accomplish this. - Isaiah 9:7.

From the material, you can see that all the members in heaven with the father are indeed, one family of God-like, or divine beings. So you are not very far off, but there are just a few areas that need adjusting, in order to fit scripture - like God being one, and not made up of more than one entity (Deuteronomy 6:4), and the Word not being eternal, and having a beginning (Colossians 1:15; Revelation 3:14).

Take care.
Thanks. I do not accept the word "a" in John 1:1. I believe the Word was God. I think a better translation would be "In the beginning was The Word and the Word was with thw Father and the two were God."
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
So why would God tell angels let us make man in our image? The angels did not help with the creation of man and man is not made in the image of angels. It is God and the Word who was already there with God at the beginning of creation.
If you can find a verse that says that angels weren't there, you can present it. Seems like a plurality, to me.
 

nPeace

Veteran Member
Thanks. I do not accept the word "a" in John 1:1. I believe the Word was God. I think a better translation would be "In the beginning was The Word and the Word was with thw Father and the two were God."
Entirely up to you.
It seems you would like a translation to fit your views.

One final word on that. If you don't like the a there, it would be keeping in line with the truth, if you read it this way... John 1 Interlinear Bible putting the where it belongs τὸν
Strong's Greek: 3588. ὁ, (ho, hé, to) -- the
Strong's Concordance
ho, hé, to: the
Original Word: ὁ, ἡ, τό
Part of Speech: Definite Article
Transliteration: ho, hé, toe
Phonetic Spelling: (ho)
Definition: the
Usage: the, the definite article.

NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin : the def. art.
Definition : the

So the text should read, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the word. He was in beginning with the God."

Also, to be consistent, you would have to not like the "a" in Acts 28:6, and should read it, "...they began declaring him to be God."

I think it is easily read, when the a is placed in the text.
Or you could follow the other translations - “was divine” or “of divine being”, since it fits the description of the Word.

At the end of the day, we have the choice.
 

lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
Entirely up to you.
It seems you would like a translation to fit your views.

One final word on that. If you don't like the a there, it would be keeping in line with the truth, if you read it this way... John 1 Interlinear Bible putting the where it belongs τὸν
Strong's Greek: 3588. ὁ, (ho, hé, to) -- the
Strong's Concordance
ho, hé, to: the
Original Word: ὁ, ἡ, τό
Part of Speech: Definite Article
Transliteration: ho, hé, toe
Phonetic Spelling: (ho)
Definition: the
Usage: the, the definite article.

NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin : the def. art.
Definition : the

So the text should read, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the word. He was in beginning with the God."

Also, to be consistent, you would have to not like the "a" in Acts 28:6, and should read it, "...they began declaring him to be God."

I think it is easily read, when the a is placed in the text.
Or you could follow the other translations - “was divine” or “of divine being”, since it fits the description of the Word.

At the end of the day, we have the choice.
I really like your translation - In yhe beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the word. Do you that "God was the word" is the same as "the Word was God"? You did NOT say " and "a" god was the Word". So why leave out the "a". One say the Word was God and the other say God was the word. Don't you see that both are the same? Aalso the other translations that say "was divine" or "of divine being" How many divine beings do you believe in? I believe there is one divine God. That one God is made up of the divine Father and the divine Son ( or Word ). Do you believe that the Word is divine but not God? That sounds like more than one God. Again I ask, why can't the one God consist of more than one being just like one family can consist of more than one person? Yes we have the choice and I feel I have explained my view. And now it looks more like your view agrees with mine but you just won't admit it.
 

nPeace

Veteran Member
I really like your translation - In yhe beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and God was the word. Do you that "God was the word" is the same as "the Word was God"? You did NOT say " and "a" god was the Word". So why leave out the "a". One say the Word was God and the other say God was the word. Don't you see that both are the same?
Yes lostwanderingsoul. "God was the Word", is the same as, "the Word was God". Let's call this (A).
However, it did not say, let's call this (B), "the God was the word", or "the Word was the God", which is different to (A), isn't it?

God, having the definite article, refers to the - definite - God.
God, without the definite article, refers to, not the definite God, but the quality or characteristic - namely like the God, or God-like, divine in nature.

I feel like you don't understand this, so I don't want to be talking past you. I want to know that we can both understand each other.
For that reason I did not use "a god", so that I can work with you.

So, do you understand that in reality, the text is reading - "In the beginning was the Word, and the word was with the definite God - the one and only, and the Word was God-like - a mighty or strong one, divine in nature (or, God-like / of Divine nature was the Word). He was in beginning with the definite God."

So the Word is not the definite God. Rather, the Word is like the definite God... in nature.

Aalso the other translations that say "was divine" or "of divine being" How many divine beings do you believe in? I believe there is one divine God. That one God is made up of the divine Father and the divine Son ( or Word ). Do you believe that the Word is divine but not God?
Divine definition : of, from, or like God or a god.
Also defined here Definition of DIVINE

So divine is basically defined as... "that which belongs to God or pertains to him, that which is godlike or heavenly".
In that case, to me, all spirit beings are divine - Jehovah God, his only begotten son (the Word), all the angels, and those who eventually are brought from the earth to reign with Christ in heaven.
They are all of divine nature. So apparently, that's countless billions of divine beings.

Notice though what you say here... You said...
I believe there is one divine God. That one God is made up of the divine Father and the divine Son ( or Word ). Do you believe that the Word is divine but not God?
If you believe - note please... God is made up of the divine Father and the divine Son, then how do you answer the question... Do you believe that the Word is divine but not God?

If God is father and son, how is God something separate from the son? Do you see how easily problems show up when you view things the way you do?
According to your view, you should be asking me, "Do you believe that the Word is divine but not the father?"
However, in asking me that, you now have to go and change the text at John 1 to your version of scripture - "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God father, and God the son was the word. He was in beginning with the God father."

Then you have to mentally remind yourself of that, for every scripture in the Bible, where God is found. Only not every scripture where God is found has Jesus separate. For example - Matthew 15:4 . . .God said, ‘Honor your father and your mother. . .
different to Matthew 27:46 . . .My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?. . . Mark 1:1 . . .Jesus Christ, the Son of God. . . John 20:17 . . .‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.’. . . Revelation 3:12 . . .“‘The one who conquers - I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God, and he will by no means go out from it anymore, and I will write upon him the name of my God and the name of the city of my God, the New Jerusalem that descends out of heaven from my God, and my own new name.

That is so much confusion lostwanderingsoul.

Simply accepting that the the Word is being described as a god; divine; a divine being; of divine kind; godlike, seems to make it so easy to get along with scripture, imo.

That sounds like more than one God. Again I ask, why can't the one God consist of more than one being just like one family can consist of more than one person? Yes we have the choice and I feel I have explained my view. And now it looks more like your view agrees with mine but you just won't admit it.
For those understanding the term God, I find there is no problem.
There are in fact, many gods, as the Bible shows. Only one - the Almighty - deserves worship. Revelation 4:11 “You are worthy, Jehovah our God, to receive the glory and the honor and the power, because you created all things, and because of your will they came into existence and were created.”

Now that I mentioned that... I think one reason many do not understand the scriptural texts, relating to God and his son, aside from the doctrine of the Trinity, is also due to the tradition some translators followed, in replacing the tetragrammaton with God or Lord. From these, it seems person go about trying to reconcile these with their own views on these.

You asked...
Why can't the one God consist of more than one being just like one family can consist of more than one person?
Let's answer that using your own analogy...
One family = Father, mother, and son.
What is the father? A man
What is the mother? A woman
What is the son? A boy
All three are human.
Is the father alone, family? Is the mother alone, family? Is the son alone, family?
I think we both would should agree, the answer is a big fat No. Agreed?

In your view, is the father alone, God? Is the son (the Word) alone, God?
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
John 1:2 He was with God in the beginning.

To get your your idea to work, you need to write your own Bible, as I said before. You also have to make a major change, that will get a certain group quite mad.
I suggest that you would only be moving from an already bad situation, to a worst one.
Here is why...
Deuteronomy 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is One.

Change that, you may as well change your mind about believing anything in the Bible, imo.
There may look like a slight difference between the numbers 1 and 2, since 1 is just a step behind 2, but 1 is no 2, nor equal to 2. No mathematical equation will ever get you there either.
So, no, what I believe, and what you believe are far out..
I do understand your view, but we disagree.
I believe what I am saying is scriptural.

Oh, by the way, I think what @Disciple of Jesus is trying to get you to consider, is that the angels were in existence before the creation of the heavens and earth, so that for God to say, "let us", and the angels who are part of God, and make God, according to you, not be included, would be not just strange, but befuddling.

Do you believe that God created, as scripture says?
Then how do you view it -
a) the father created with the son's help
b) the father and son created
c) the son created while the father instructed
d) Your view is none of the above, but is...

John 1:3 Through Him all things were made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made.
Colossians 1:16 For in Him all things were created, things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities. All things were created through Him and for Him.
 
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nPeace

Veteran Member
@lostwanderingsoul
A moment ago, I was struck in the face. BOOM!
Let's see if we agree similarly.

A family of gods in the heavenly realm.
It started with the creator - the first / beginning, and the end.
He begat sons - starting with his first born (the Word), who worked with him in creating all things.
First. Other spirit beings - the heavenly host of Cherubim and Seraphim (Cherubs and Seraphs) Edit and perhaps other spirit beings.
The family of gods is complete

If this is what you believe, then our view is not just similar, but bang on.
Furthermore, if you believe that the father - Jehovah God, said to his first born son - the first angel (We don't have to get tied up with words - to my knowledge angel means messenger, so all of God's heavenly sons are messengers His firstborn son is chief, hence why he is called the Word), "Let us make man."

If this is what you believe, then we can shake hands, and go home.
However, I don't believe the family of gods, is God. That may be where we differ.
I believe Jehovah is the definite God - Almighty God, the one and only true and living, who as creator, rightly receives glory and honor, as supreme. Jehovah God is one - Deuteronomy 6:4
The others have ranks. The Word - Mighty God, the chief commander of both the Cherubs and Seraphs Edit and perhaps other spirit beings. The Seraphs appear to be higher in rank.
 
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lostwanderingsoul

Well-Known Member
@lostwanderingsoul
A moment ago, I was struck in the face. BOOM!
Let's see if we agree similarly.

A family of gods in the heavenly realm.
It started with the creator - the first / beginning, and the end.
He begat sons - starting with his first born (the Word), who worked with him in creating all things.
First. Other spirit beings - the heavenly host of Cherubim and Seraphim (Cherubs and Seraphs) Edit and perhaps other spirit beings.
The family of gods is complete

If this is what you believe, then our view is not just similar, but bang on.
Furthermore, if you believe that the father - Jehovah God, said to his first born son - the first angel (We don't have to get tied up with words - to my knowledge angel means messenger, so all of God's heavenly sons are messengers His firstborn son is chief, hence why he is called the Word), "Let us make man."

If this is what you believe, then we can shake hands, and go home.
However, I don't believe the family of gods, is God. That may be where we differ.
I believe Jehovah is the definite God - Almighty God, the one and only true and living, who as creator, rightly receives glory and honor, as supreme. Jehovah God is one - Deuteronomy 6:4
The others have ranks. The Word - Mighty God, the chief commander of both the Cherubs and Seraphs Edit and perhaps other spirit beings. The Seraphs appear to be higher in rank.
Let me try it this way. I am John Doe. My wife is Jane Doe. It is completely correct to say I am a Doe and my wife is a Doe. If you think of the name God as a last name then any member of that family is a God. You could have a father named Jehovah God and a another member of the family named Word God. It would be correct to say Jehovah is a God and Word is a God just like I am a Doe and my wife is a Doe. I think our difference is that you believe there was a time when only Jehovah God existed and Word God was somehow made or created at a later time. I believe both Jehovah God and Word God existed together before there was anything else. John 1:3 is speaking about the Word when it says "all things were made by him." And John 1:2 says "the same was in the beginning with God." So Word God was in the beginning with Jehovah God. And if all things were made by Word God, he certainly did not make himself so he must have existed before anything was created. Col 1:16 is speaking about Word God when it says "by him were all things created." But again he did not create himself. And Col 1:17 says "he is before all things." So Word was there before anything else existed. Jehovah God and Word God existed for all eternity and one day decided to make man in THEIR image. "Let us make man in our image." This is what the Bible says.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
Let me try it this way. I am John Doe. My wife is Jane Doe. It is completely correct to say I am a Doe and my wife is a Doe. If you think of the name God as a last name then any member of that family is a God. You could have a father named Jehovah God and a another member of the family named Word God. It would be correct to say Jehovah is a God and Word is a God just like I am a Doe and my wife is a Doe. I think our difference is that you believe there was a time when only Jehovah God existed and Word God was somehow made or created at a later time. I believe both Jehovah God and Word God existed together before there was anything else. John 1:3 is speaking about the Word when it says "all things were made by him." And John 1:2 says "the same was in the beginning with God." So Word God was in the beginning with Jehovah God. And if all things were made by Word God, he certainly did not make himself so he must have existed before anything was created. Col 1:16 is speaking about Word God when it says "by him were all things created." But again he did not create himself. And Col 1:17 says "he is before all things." So Word was there before anything else existed. Jehovah God and Word God existed for all eternity and one day decided to make man in THEIR image. "Let us make man in our image." This is what the Bible says.
That isn't 'what the Bible says', you are interpreting it that way.

Just like you are interpreting Genesis 1:26, and saying that it can't mean God talking to angels.
 

Desert Snake

Veteran Member
'God', is a name, when written without specification, thusly, 'the g- d Thor', that isn't a name of Thor, it is a description of what Thor, is, as relating to that word. The name, title, and word, god, thusly, is contextual. Without specification, the name G- d, is written contextually, for the name 'Elohim', in
Genesis 1:26.
A more direct interpretation of John 1:1 would be,
In the beginning, was the word[Jesus in Spirit form, the word[Jesus in Spirit form, was with God[one of the God names, and the word[Jesus in Spirit form, was God.

Contextually, as God manifests as Jesus, therefore if we believe
Genesis 1:26
To be literal, then 'Jesus talking to angels', makes perfect sense. As does, 'God talking to angels'.
 
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