can you point these out...
the condoning of such behavior is repeated in numerous times in the scriptures, therefore everyone of those passages need to be reinterpreted...
It would take too long to explain each and every one. What you need to do, really, is learn Talmud and the Rabbinic responsa literature, if you want all of that.
But one example of how the plain meaning of the text says one thing, but the applied interpretation is quite different would be the (in)famous Lex Talionis. Where the plain reading of the text is "An eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth, a leg for a leg, a life for a life...." The Rabbis explain to us that this is not meant literally, as in if a person loses an eye in a fight, his attacker should be blinded in one eye, but rather that the attacker owes him financial reparations and compensation for the value of his eye; and the Rabbis then give us a long, detailed set of instructions for how such value is to be calculated-- which, I have to say, often works out to better compensation than the average plaintiff in a damages case wins in American courts, not including punitive damages awarded.
Another example might be the interpretation that, for example, the laws of the captive woman whose husband wishes to make her a wife or concubine (Deut. 21:10-14) as plainly read in the Torah merely state that a man who captures a woman in war and wishes to have sex with her must take her home with him, let her mourn first, and then he can have sex with her; and if he gets tired of her he has to give her a little something to get her back home or to make a life for herself. Still problematic, yes? But the Rabbis of the Talmud explain that, additionally, he must marry her legally before having sex with her, and thus, she must convert to Judaism first. Since no one can convert to Judaism under duress (promises made under duress are not binding in Jewish Law), this means by definition that she must consent to the marriage and the sex, otherwise, he cannot touch her.
As I said, those are only examples of many such interpretations.
but why are they acceptable to the god of the bible and the koran?
What I'm saying is that God's true and full existence is not the same thing as the theology and anthropomorphic language of God as understood by the authors of the Tanakh. That when the authors of the Torah tell us that God condones slavery or whatnot, that is what
they have understood God to mean-- they, as members of a society and inhabitants of a time when slavery was universal, and the total absence of it inconceivable. That is not necessarily what God was telling them, but it was what they believed they had heard.
Prophecy is not like taking dictation, or having a phone call. It is visions, dreams, a whirl of sensory input and meta-information. That must be sorted out by the prophet, who can make errors. Not only that, but context is provided by the Oral Torah, which may render things narrower or differently than they appear at the surface level. And that's why interpretation is so necessary, as is the freedom for theology to evolve.