TheFragranceOfHoliness
Active Member
I told you that this will not work for you with me.
Not very good at instructions are you?
-
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:- Reply to discussions and create your own threads.
- Our modern chat room. No add-ons or extensions required, just login and start chatting!
- Access to private conversations with other members.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
God is not a man
- Thread starter YellowFeather
- Start date
Not very good at instructions are you?
Audie
Veteran Member
As if you have the capacity to issue ibstructions- or any response worth reading
Mom always said to just believe people the
first time they showed who they are.
You got three.
Off to ig city with you.
TheFragranceOfHoliness
Active Member
Trailblazer
Veteran Member
How do you know if the Bible is true?
Nobody can know if any scriptures are true, we can only believe they are true.
TheFragranceOfHoliness
Active Member
This is incorrect.
Muffled
Jesus in me
I believe God sent Himself. Otherwise you worship two gods.
Muffled
Jesus in me
I believe that is correct. God reserves the right to decide when and how we die, so killing a person is acting contrary to God's will. Acting contrary to God's will is sin.
paarsurrey
Veteran Member
God is not a man
Sixty-nine times in the Synoptic Gospels, Jesus calls himself (the) "Son of man", a Greek expression which in its Aramaic (and Hebrew) background could be an oblique way of indicating the speaker's own self (e.g., Matt 8:20), or else simply mean "someone" or "a human being" (as in Ps 8:4, where it is a poetic variant ...
en.wikipedia.org
"What did "son of man" mean to the Jews?
"Son of man" is the translation of one Hebrew and one Aramaic phrase used in the Hebrew Bible. In Hebrew, the term is ben-adam, while in Aramaic its equivalent bar-adam is used. In the Book of Daniel and in post-biblical literature, the similar terms bar-anosh and bar-nasha also appear.
The Hebrew expression "son of man" (בן–אדם i.e. ben-'adam) appears 107 times in the Hebrew Bible.[1] This is the most common Hebrew construction for the singular, appearing 93 times in the Book of Ezekiel alone and 14 times elsewhere. In thirty two cases, the phrase appears in intermediate plural form "sons of men".[1]
en.wikipedia.org
6:102
بَدِیۡعُ السَّمٰوٰتِ وَالۡاَرۡضِ ؕ اَنّٰی یَکُوۡنُ لَہٗ وَلَدٌ وَّلَمۡ تَکُنۡ لَّہٗ صَاحِبَۃٌ ؕ وَخَلَقَ کُلَّ شَیۡءٍ ۚ وَہُوَ بِکُلِّ شَیۡءٍ عَلِیۡمٌ ﴿۱۰۲
The Originator of the heavens and the earth! How can He* have a son when He has no consort, and when He has created everything and has knowledge of all things? *One G-d
www.alislam.org
Right?
Regards
______________
Original Arabic narration/text from Muhammad's time of 6:102 and English translation rendered by Maulawi Sher Ali
is given above.
(Jesus) Yeshua, as per, NT Bible, himself pegged his status with Adam/man by stating himself as Son of Adam and or Son of Man:G-d never ever had a wife , so G-d never ever had a son, please, right?
Even Adam needed a wife, as per Bible, to have sons, right, please?
72:3
'And Exalted is the Majesty of our Lord: He has taken neither a wife nor a son. The Quranic Arabic Corpus - Translation Yusuf Ali
Sixty-nine times in the Synoptic Gospels, Jesus calls himself (the) "Son of man", a Greek expression which in its Aramaic (and Hebrew) background could be an oblique way of indicating the speaker's own self (e.g., Matt 8:20), or else simply mean "someone" or "a human being" (as in Ps 8:4, where it is a poetic variant ...
Son of man (Christianity) - Wikipedia
"What did "son of man" mean to the Jews?
- As generally interpreted by Jews, "son of man" denotes mankind generally in contrast to deity or godhead, with special reference to the human weakness and frailty (Job 25:6; Psalms 8:4; Psalms 144:3; Psalms 146:3; Isaiah 51:12, etc.)[2]
- The term "ben adam" is but a formal substitute for the personal pronoun or maybe a title given to the prophet Ezekiel, probably to remind him of his human weakness.[2]
"Son of man" is the translation of one Hebrew and one Aramaic phrase used in the Hebrew Bible. In Hebrew, the term is ben-adam, while in Aramaic its equivalent bar-adam is used. In the Book of Daniel and in post-biblical literature, the similar terms bar-anosh and bar-nasha also appear.
The Hebrew expression "son of man" (בן–אדם i.e. ben-'adam) appears 107 times in the Hebrew Bible.[1] This is the most common Hebrew construction for the singular, appearing 93 times in the Book of Ezekiel alone and 14 times elsewhere. In thirty two cases, the phrase appears in intermediate plural form "sons of men".[1]
Son of man (Judaism) - Wikipedia
6:102
بَدِیۡعُ السَّمٰوٰتِ وَالۡاَرۡضِ ؕ اَنّٰی یَکُوۡنُ لَہٗ وَلَدٌ وَّلَمۡ تَکُنۡ لَّہٗ صَاحِبَۃٌ ؕ وَخَلَقَ کُلَّ شَیۡءٍ ۚ وَہُوَ بِکُلِّ شَیۡءٍ عَلِیۡمٌ ﴿۱۰۲
The Originator of the heavens and the earth! How can He* have a son when He has no consort, and when He has created everything and has knowledge of all things? *One G-d
Holy Quran: Read, Listen and Search
In Arabic, Chinese, English, French, German, Italian, Spanish and Urdu.
Right?
Regards
______________
Original Arabic narration/text from Muhammad's time of 6:102 and English translation rendered by Maulawi Sher Ali
is given above.
Last edited:
Muffled
Jesus in me
I believe of course Jesus is man and God. Man is man and God is God. Why would you think anything different?God is not a man
(Jesus) Yeshua, as per, NT Bible, himself pegged his status with Adam/man by stating himself as Son of Adam and or Son of Man:
Sixty-nine times in the Synoptic Gospels, Jesus calls himself (the) "Son of man", a Greek expression which in its Aramaic (and Hebrew) background could be an oblique way of indicating the speaker's own self (e.g., Matt 8:20), or else simply mean "someone" or "a human being" (as in Ps 8:4, where it is a poetic variant ...
Son of man (Christianity) - Wikipedia
"What did "son of man" mean to the Jews?
"Son of man" in Job 25 and Psalm 146 is ben adam (Hebrew: בן־אדם), and "son of man" in Psalms 144 is ben enosh (Hebrew: בן־אנוש)."
- As generally interpreted by Jews, "son of man" denotes mankind generally in contrast to deity or godhead, with special reference to the human weakness and frailty (Job 25:6; Psalms 8:4; Psalms 144:3; Psalms 146:3; Isaiah 51:12, etc.)[2]
- The term "ben adam" is but a formal substitute for the personal pronoun or maybe a title given to the prophet Ezekiel, probably to remind him of his human weakness.[2]
"Son of man" is the translation of one Hebrew and one Aramaic phrase used in the Hebrew Bible. In Hebrew, the term is ben-adam, while in Aramaic its equivalent bar-adam is used. In the Book of Daniel and in post-biblical literature, the similar terms bar-anosh and bar-nasha also appear.
The Hebrew expression "son of man" (בן–אדם i.e. ben-'adam) appears 107 times in the Hebrew Bible.[1] This is the most common Hebrew construction for the singular, appearing 93 times in the Book of Ezekiel alone and 14 times elsewhere. In thirty two cases, the phrase appears in intermediate plural form "sons of men".[1]
Son of man (Judaism) - Wikipedia
6:102
بَدِیۡعُ السَّمٰوٰتِ وَالۡاَرۡضِ ؕ اَنّٰی یَکُوۡنُ لَہٗ وَلَدٌ وَّلَمۡ تَکُنۡ لَّہٗ صَاحِبَۃٌ ؕ وَخَلَقَ کُلَّ شَیۡءٍ ۚ وَہُوَ بِکُلِّ شَیۡءٍ عَلِیۡمٌ ﴿۱۰۲
The Originator of the heavens and the earth! How can He* have a son when He has no consort, and when He has created everything and has knowledge of all things? *One G-d
Holy Quran: Read, Listen and Search
In Arabic, Chinese, English, French, German, Italian, Spanish and Urdu.
Right?
Regards
______________
Original Arabic narration/text from Muhammad's time of 6:102 and English translation rendered by Maulawi Sher Ali
is given above.
PearlSeeker
Well-Known Member
The Bible says otherwise.
"For when Gentiles, who do not have the law, by nature do what the law requires, they are a law to themselves, even though they do not have the law. 15 They show that the work of the law is written on their hearts, while their conscience also bears witness... " (Romans 2)
It is one thing to know righteousness in theory and another thing to follow it in practice.