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God is not a man

Muffled

Jesus in me
To understand Righteousness and sin one has to study the Bible. When one understands that God is 100 percent righteous without sin one knows that he could not be a man. God can have no contact with sin. God had to Send his Son in the likeness of sinful man to take the fall. Romans 8:1 For God is a Spirit and those who worship God must worship him in Spirit. John 4:24
I believe God sent Himself. Otherwise you worship two gods.
 

Muffled

Jesus in me
Its a " sin" if i do it.
But its just perfect righteousness for "god" to
do what i described. ( you did read exodus, right?)

Did read / understand my post? Your " answer" is
totally irrelevant.
I believe that is correct. God reserves the right to decide when and how we die, so killing a person is acting contrary to God's will. Acting contrary to God's will is sin.
 

paarsurrey

Veteran Member
God is not a man
G-d never ever had a wife , so G-d never ever had a son, please, right?

Even Adam needed a wife, as per Bible, to have sons, right, please?
72:3
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'And Exalted is the Majesty of our Lord: He has taken neither a wife nor a son. The Quranic Arabic Corpus - Translation Yusuf Ali
(Jesus) Yeshua, as per, NT Bible, himself pegged his status with Adam/man by stating himself as Son of Adam and or Son of Man:
Sixty-nine times in the Synoptic Gospels, Jesus calls himself (the) "Son of man", a Greek expression which in its Aramaic (and Hebrew) background could be an oblique way of indicating the speaker's own self (e.g., Matt 8:20), or else simply mean "someone" or "a human being" (as in Ps 8:4, where it is a poetic variant ...

"What did "son of man" mean to the Jews?
  1. As generally interpreted by Jews, "son of man" denotes mankind generally in contrast to deity or godhead, with special reference to the human weakness and frailty (Job 25:6; Psalms 8:4; Psalms 144:3; Psalms 146:3; Isaiah 51:12, etc.)[2]
  2. The term "ben adam" is but a formal substitute for the personal pronoun or maybe a title given to the prophet Ezekiel, probably to remind him of his human weakness.[2]
"Son of man" in Job 25 and Psalm 146 is ben adam (Hebrew: בן־אדם), and "son of man" in Psalms 144 is ben enosh (Hebrew: בן־אנוש)."
"Son of man" is the translation of one Hebrew and one Aramaic phrase used in the Hebrew Bible. In Hebrew, the term is ben-adam, while in Aramaic its equivalent bar-adam is used. In the Book of Daniel and in post-biblical literature, the similar terms bar-anosh and bar-nasha also appear.
The Hebrew expression "son of man" (בן–אדם i.e. ben-'adam) appears 107 times in the Hebrew Bible.[1] This is the most common Hebrew construction for the singular, appearing 93 times in the Book of Ezekiel alone and 14 times elsewhere. In thirty two cases, the phrase appears in intermediate plural form "sons of men".[1]

6:102
بَدِیۡعُ السَّمٰوٰتِ وَالۡاَرۡضِ ؕ اَنّٰی یَکُوۡنُ لَہٗ وَلَدٌ وَّلَمۡ تَکُنۡ لَّہٗ صَاحِبَۃٌ ؕ وَخَلَقَ کُلَّ شَیۡءٍ ۚ وَہُوَ بِکُلِّ شَیۡءٍ عَلِیۡمٌ ﴿۱۰۲
The Originator of the heavens and the earth! How can He* have a son when He has no consort, and when He has created everything and has knowledge of all things? *One G-d

Right?

Regards
______________
Original Arabic narration/text from Muhammad's time of 6:102 and English translation rendered by Maulawi Sher Ali
is given above.
 
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