Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
And this goes right back to my original point. If those who practiced homosexuality were, as you think god considered them, decadent and evil people, then why? Why did god see sexual affection toward someone of the same sex as decadent and evil?
Ok, but then we'd still be back at the original question, "Why?" Why would the mutual sexual expression between people of the same sex damage spiritual progress? Simply claiming a possible outcome isn't enough.
Because Baha'u'llah said so?
So your saying god doesn't like homosexuality cause it causes "wrong" diseases and crime? Interesting but I don't think that can be supported. First God is responsible for diseases whether they are "wrong" or not. Second there is plenty of crime by heterosexuals that have no correlation with homosexuals existing. What your saying is as bad as saying rape exists because women dress provocatively. We are responsible for our own choices despite the influences.I think the only reason behind this is GOD only want a legal relation between male and female you all know that fertility can be enhanced by only relation between male and female that's why to stop any other wrong diseases and society crimes GOD don't like homosexuality.
As well as equivalent prohibitions by various other religions, yes.
We're hardly alone on this one!
I figure it was much like being a female back then...I hate to think of what life must have been like for young boys in such an environment.
Well, I think you're wrong, alone or together, and I think that attitude does harm to humanity.
But I realize it's just Baha'u'llah's word against mine. I wish he were here to debate it with us.
do you mean ones own body...sort of why masturbation is frowned upon?After further consideration of this thread, and from what was listed in earlier post I wrote, I think the reason why God opposes homosexuality (according to those who think that) is because it (the practice) is seen as lustful, and glorifying the body, rather than giving (all) glory to God.
Okay, let's say that god considers homosexual activity not motivated by love to be sinful, would he feel any better if it was heterosexual activity not motivated by love? If so, then there must be something else about homosexuality he's not happy with. If not, then in those passages where homosexuality is condemned why isn't this very important point noted? He doesn't distinguish between homosexuals who are expressing their love and those expressing their lust. He condemns them all.Pegg said:some of the accounts in the bible, such as the account of Sodom and Godmorrah, show that the sex that men were having with each other was not motivated by love
But in the other condeming passages this isn't mentioned at all. Surely there were heterosexuals who would have been doing the same and therefore meriting the same condemnation, but there aren't. So violently inflamed lust can't be the lone reason. Something else is compelling god to come down on homosexualitythe description is that they were 'violently inflamed in their lust'
in this context, the act is not an act of love and respect...in fact, that account shows the men of Sodom wanted to rape two strangers. I hate to think of what life must have been like for young boys in such an environment.
That's it? You take a stab that misses the mark so you imply the question is unanswerable by man and that I have to ask god himself. Why not simply say that up front instead of coming up with an "apparently"?BruceDLimber said:Fine.
Then I suggest you ask God when you see Him.
So you don't believe homosexuals can love each other as heterosexuals do?Acim said:After further consideration of this thread, and from what was listed in earlier post I wrote, I think the reason why God opposes homosexuality (according to those who think that) is because it (the practice) is seen as lustful, and glorifying the body, rather than giving (all) glory to God.
And I don't believe the Bible shows he is against homosexual attraction, just the expression of it.I'd just like to be clear that I do not believe God opposes homosexuality, but am responding in vein of OP.
Argue, not at all. A decent argument? well that hasn't appeared yet. So we're still sitting here asking the "why?" question.Also wish to add that it is not hard to argue (from same Christian view as noted above) that God arguably opposes heterosexuality in all cases but procreation.
Fine. Then just come up with the real reason god finds homosexuality "detestable" and worthy of "punishment of eternal fireGod (of my understanding) is incapable of hating humans for any conceivable reason that we might dream up.
Okay, let's say that god considers homosexual activity not motivated by love to be sinful, would he feel any better if it was heterosexual activity not motivated by love? If so, then there must be something else about homosexuality he's not happy with. If not, then in those passages where homosexuality is condemned why isn't this very important point noted? He doesn't distinguish between homosexuals who are expressing their love and those expressing their lust. He condemns them all.
But in the other condeming passages this isn't mentioned at all. Surely there were heterosexuals who would have been doing the same and therefore meriting the same condemnation, but there aren't. So violently inflamed lust can't be the lone reason. Something else is compelling god to come down on homosexuality
I figure it was much like being a female back then...
I take it then that unless two people are trying to conceive, sexual intercourse between them is no better than two homosexuals "getting it on." I assume this is spelled out somewhere in the Bible. Care to guide me to it?I mentioned the love because people do use it as a justification for homosexual activity. they think that because they are motivated by love, then God should not have a problem with it.
but it really does run a little deeper then this. Whether you wish to consider it or not, the fact is that sexual relations is designed for procreation. Its purpose is not to give us pleasure. Its purpose is so that Gods purpose can be fulfilled in the earth, namely that the earth become filled with progeny.
I take it then that unless two people are trying to conceive, sexual intercourse between them is no better than two homosexuals "getting it on." I assume this is spelled out somewhere in the Bible. Care to guide me to it?
Move the goal posts much?the account about the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah show that the men were not interested in females. In the account Lot offered the mob his two daughters, but they refused and said 'no, we want the men'
so I think in those cities, being female would have been safer then being male.
Are you going to answer his question?sexual intercourse is only permissible within the arrangement of marriage. Unmarried people were not permitted to have sex at all. That was punishable by death. This shows that Gods view is that sex is only allowed within that context.
So you are free to make up whatever you like when ever the Bible is silent on a specific thing?the bible doesnt have to spell it out because it is very clear in detailing what is acceptable to God and what is not.
If a man deliberately spilled his semen on the ground rather then give it to the womb, he was punished with death. The case of Onis shows that it was not acceptable to prevent the semen from performing its intended use. Because he did not give his semen to his sister-in-law (whose husband had died), he was executed.
Unless of course a him rapes a her.sexual intercourse is only permissible within the arrangement of marriage. Unmarried people were not permitted to have sex at all. That was punishable by death. This shows that Gods view is that sex is only allowed within that context.
Because sexual intercourse is only possible between a male and a female his limiting law here should have no bearing on homosexual encounters of any kind, nor proscribe non-intercourse acts between unmarried heterosexuals.sexual intercourse is only permissible within the arrangement of marriage. Unmarried people were not permitted to have sex at all. That was punishable by death. This shows that Gods view is that sex is only allowed within that context.
Then it looks like the acts I just mentioned are alright in as much as they are not clearly prohibited.the bible doesnt have to spell it out because it is very clear in detailing what is acceptable to God and what is not.
So, in as much I figure you feel god knows best, are you ready to support a law to lynch all masturbating males? Also, are you aware of what happens to excess semen in the body? If it isn't spontaneously ejaculated a night---a very common occurrence among teens called "wet dreams"---it is absorbed by the body. The male produces far, far, more little wigglers than will ever be used. In fact, the male is pretty darn prolific. Here is what the averages breakdown as:If a man deliberately spilled his semen on the ground rather then give it to the womb, he was punished with death.
A fine moment of justice served.The case of Onis shows that it was not acceptable to prevent the semen from performing its intended use. Because he did not give his semen to his sister-in-law (whose husband had died), he was executed.