Me Myself
Back to my username
Me Myself, here's an analogy:
Say you're at fault (or partly at fault) in a traffic collision. The other driver's car is damaged so badly that it needs to be towed.
The first tow truck on the scene is a tilt-bed. The truck driver explains that his rate is twice as much as a regular tow truck, and he can call for a regular tow truck, but it will take 2 hours to get there. The car can be towed with a regular tow truck; it doesn't need a tilt-bed, though it will do the job. The driver decides to use the tilt-bed instead of wait.
In that situation, you would still be liable for your share of the cost of the tilt-bed, not just your share of the cost of a regular tow truck, because in that situation, the drive was acting reasonably when he decided that he didn't want to wait two hours with a tow truck right there.
Does this help, or did it just muddy things more?
Edit: my point is that the general principle is that a person's duty is only to act reasonably, not to act in a way that absolutely minimizes costs for the other responsible party.
Sorry, I did get lost because I easily get lost with car jargon even in my language , its ironic cause I gave you another automobilistic example in my post above .