CG Didymus
Veteran Member
Great question. I've been waiting to hear Sincerly's response now for two days. Where did he go?sincerly, what is your translation of ha-almah harah and upon what do you base it?
Welcome to Religious Forums, a friendly forum to discuss all religions in a friendly surrounding.
Your voice is missing! You will need to register to get access to the following site features:We hope to see you as a part of our community soon!
Great question. I've been waiting to hear Sincerly's response now for two days. Where did he go?sincerly, what is your translation of ha-almah harah and upon what do you base it?
No matter what the Hebrew Scriptures say, fundy Christians have to make the Law unimportant. Paul goes to great lengths to make the Law unimportant, yet Christians still need "laws" to govern themselves. Where did those laws come from? The traditions of the early Church fathers? Where did the "tradition" about Jesus' birth come from? Traditions? Plus a little creative misquoting?A law isn't a prophecy. Nor is prophecy a law, sincerly.
The purpose of law to restrict a person or people action that might harm another person or group of people, by imposing penalty should people break the law.
The law (Torah) as given to the Jewish people (Hebrews, Israelites, Judaeans, etc) were meant to be abide by everyone, from the lowest subjects to the rulers.
A law is not something to be fulfilled, like a prophecy. And like CMike said, your claim is ridiculous to think that one person, like Jesus, could fulfill the law, like prophecy.
That you would think a law is a prophecy, only demonstrate that you don't understand what prophecy mean, or what the law (Torah) mean. It also demonstrate that you don't understand the differences between law and prophecy.
A law isn't a prophecy. Nor is prophecy a law, sincerly.
The purpose of law to restrict a person or people action that might harm another person or group of people, by imposing penalty should people break the law.
The law (Torah) as given to the Jewish people (Hebrews, Israelites, Judaeans, etc) were meant to be abide by everyone, from the lowest subjects to the rulers.
A law is not something to be fulfilled, like a prophecy. And like CMike said, your claim is ridiculous to think that one person, like Jesus, could fulfill the law, like prophecy.
That you would think a law is a prophecy, only demonstrate that you don't understand what prophecy mean, or what the law (Torah) mean. It also demonstrate that you don't understand the differences between law and prophecy.
The persistent refusal to respond is pitifully irresponsible if not cowardly.Great question. I've been waiting to hear Sincerly's response now for two days. Where did he go?sincerly, what is your translation of ha-almah harah and upon what do you base it?
Hi Jayhawker Soule,The persistent refusal to respond is pitifully irresponsible if not cowardly.
Originally Posted by sincerly
Hi I T, You are not without understanding of what prophecy means. GOD has given to Ahaz by Isaiah the same prophetic sign of the "seed of the woman" seen in Gen.3:15. It is still "future", at that time, and would not be fulfilled until the birth of Jesus Christ.
Take all of Judah's sins, add them allllllllllllllllll together and God punished them for 70 years of exile. Not more nor less.Again, """"2Kings 17:13, is a record of the dealings of the kings of Israel(kingdom of Judah and kingdom of Israel); Notice the information, "Yet the LORD testified against Israel, and against Judah, by all the prophets, [and by] all the seers, saying, Turn ye from your evil ways, and keep my commandments [and] my statutes, according to all the law which I commanded your fathers, and which I sent to you by my servants the prophets""""".
In the places of worship, those instructions were to be read in the ears of the people---every Sabbath day.
Jayhawker Soule said:The persistent refusal to respond is pitifully irresponsible if not cowardly.
I have zero interest in engaging with you.Hi Jayhawker Soule,
Could you give me what you see the sign is in Isaiah 8?
Thanks,
Fletch
The persistent refusal to respond is pitifully irresponsible if not cowardly.
Like sincerly, I only know how to read and understand the bible in English. The difference between him and me, is that I read the passage (like 7:14) along with the rest of the text in Isaiah 7 and 8, and he won't. He would claim greater authority because of what Gabriel (who is never mentioned at all, in Matthew 1 and 2) said this-or-that in Matthew 1 and 2. So any logical reasoning go out the windows, because of Gabriel say-so.
It characterizes the evasion, not the person - unless, of course, the evasion typifies the person.Originally Posted by CG Didymus
QuoteOriginally Posted by Jayhawker Soule
sincerly, what is your translation of ha-almah harah and upon what do you base it?
:
Originally Posted by Jayhawker Soule
sincerly, what is your translation of ha-almah harah and upon what do you base it?
Great question. I've been waiting to hear Sincerly's response now for two days. Where did he go?
The persistent refusal to respond is pitifully irresponsible if not cowardly.
Hi Jay, isn't that an ad hominem comment?
That is not what the Hebrew says. It is simply what you want it to say. Your "little research" is a sham.Hi CG D, I have been doing a little research and had other obligations with priority over the forums.
"""
יד לָכֵן יִתֵּן אֲדֹנָי הוּא, לָכֶם--אוֹת: הִנֵּה הָעַלְמָה, הָרָה וְיֹלֶדֶת בֵּן, וְקָרָאת שְׁמוֹ, עִמָּנוּ אֵל. 14 Therefore the Lord Himself shall give you a sign: behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel.
You are babbling. On what grounds do you translate 'harah' as 'shall conceive' given that the verb 'harah' is 3rd person singular masculine past tense?Jay, this is still a future event. The "prophetess" son was NOT to be called "Immanuel".
Hi Sincerly,
I have some news for you, "seed of the woman" does not imply virgin birth in any way, shape, nor matter.
Take all of Judah's sins, add them allllllllllllllllll together and God punished them for 70 years of exile. Not more nor less.
That said, of course the kingdom of Israel was and will be to the end times caught up in a world wide false snare religion that errors through wine, has weaned from the milk teachers, takes here a little and there a little from the Hebrew Scripture to snare people into it, is rest for the weary, uses a non-Hebrew language, and has covenant with death that they think will hide them from the scourge to come. See Isaiah 24&28 for details.
But don't apply that to Judah. Judah was punished for allllll the sins you can find in the Hebrew Scriptures.
PS See how silly it is to consider Mary "the woman" instead of Eve:
12 And the man said , Mary whom thou gavest to be with me, she gave me of the tree, and I did eat . 13 And the LORD God said unto Mary, What is this that thou hast done ? And Mary said , The serpent beguiled me , and I did eat . 14 And the LORD God said unto the serpent, Because thou hast done this, thou art cursed above all cattle, and above every beast of the field; upon thy belly shalt thou go , and dust shalt thou eat all the days of thy life: 15 And I will put enmity between thee and Mary, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel. 16 Unto Mary he said , I will greatly multiply thy sorrow and thy conception; in sorrow thou shalt bring forth children; and thy desire shall be to thy husband, and he shall rule over thee.
It characterizes the evasion, not the person - unless, of course, the evasion typifies the person.
That is not what the Hebrew says. It is simply what you want it to say. Your "little research" is a sham.
You are babbling. On what grounds do you translate 'harah' as 'shall conceive' given that the verb 'harah' is 3rd person singular masculine past tense?
Any sham is from you. Your "ha-almah harah" isn't "almah hareh".
It does not mean 'this' - "this maiden" would be "ha-almah ha-zot."The Hebrew text has the definite article of "ha" which means "the/this".
- What part of speech is 'hareh' and upon what do you base this claim?
- What is your Hebrew source for "almah hareh"?
- How would you translate "ha-almah harah"?
Hi Jayhawker,
I did not read your post too carefully and now see you never made any implication that the sign was the almah and I apologize making it seem that you had.-Fletch
Sincerly, I see in Isaiah 7:14 that you have an indefinite article "a" in front of almah. The Hebrew text has the definite article of "ha" which means "the/this". Hope this is just a minor oversight. Also, to be perfectly clear, do you see the woman as Eve in "seed of the woman"in Gen3?
Fletch
You have shown absolutely nothing - despite being repeatedly asked for reference.Hi Jay, I have shown you the first two and the last isn't a part of the Isa.7:14 verse.