Darkforbid
Well-Known Member
Just like homosexuality. Not widespread mind you, but common nonetheless.
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Any evidence of Homosexuality being common in the Jewish nation?
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Just like homosexuality. Not widespread mind you, but common nonetheless.
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Take it up with the native Africans that enslaved their own brothers and sisters then sold them to white men. Black on black crime goes back a couple of thousand years, long before white man got involved.
The Bible permits and allows slavery, and even establishes policies for how severely you can beat them, because they are your property.
That's no excuse. Labatomies were common, but the practice is still condemnable at best, no matter who is doing them and when.Because slavery was common at that time
Really?It's already a very rare occurrence for the SC to reverse any prior judgement, let alone that has been reinforced on multiple occasions.
That's no excuse. Labatomies were common, but the practice is still condemnable at best, no matter who is doing them and when.
There is a valid question about using illegal acts to counter illegal acts.But destroying illegal government property is oh-so cool.
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It's important on RF to quibble over whether "rare", "less commonReally?
https://www.govinfo.gov/content/pkg/GPO-CONAN-2014/pdf/GPO-CONAN-2014-13.pdf
That's a whole lot of "rare".
Rare, uncommon and common are three different things. SCOTUS decisions being overturned or abrogated is not rare but uncommon.It's important on RF to quibble over whether "rare", "less common
due to preference for stare decisis" is the best description.
Shadow Wolf's intended meaning is cromulent.
Such quibbling is irrelevant to her point about the court's placingRare, uncommon and common are three different things. SCOTUS decisions being overturned or abrogated is not rare but uncommon.
Precedent isn't always important.Such quibbling is irrelevant to her point about the court's placing
importance on stare decisis. This serves legal stability.
No, it always is.Precedent isn't always important.
Not when the precedent violates the principles of the ConstitutionNo, it always is.
But on occasion, change or ever reversal is better.
Ref...
FindLaw's United States Supreme Court case and opinions.
Excerpted (underlining added)....
Stare decisis is not, like the rule of res judicata, universal inexorable command. 'The rule of stare decisis, though one tending to consistency and uniformity [285 U.S. 393, 406] of decision, is not inflexible. Whether it shall be followed or departed from is a question entirely within the discretion of the court, which is again called upon to consider a question once decided.' Hertz v. Woodman, 218 U.S. 205, 212 , 30 S. Ct. 621. Stare decisis is usually the wise policy, because in most matters it is more important that the applicable rule of law be settled than that it be settled right.
Ya know, I debated about using the word "common," and finally realized I was thinking of how the percentage of homosexuals is pretty darn steady. Commonly they represent a small, relatively unchanging fraction of a population that hovers between 4% and 5% depending on the study used.I object! I am certainly NOT "common."
I haven't the faintest idea of what kinds of studies and polls have been carried out in "the Jewish nation," but I see no reason to suspect Jews, no matter where they live, are any different, gender orientation wise, than anyone else.Any evidence of Homosexuality being common in the Jewish nation?
The Supreme Court violates the Constitution regularly.Not when the precedent violates the principles of the Constitution
To quote SCOTUS:The Supreme Court violates the Constitution regularly.
Don't rely upon my judgement....even some of the justices say so.
What you stated is correct.To quote SCOTUS:
The doctrine of stare decisis does not require us to approve routine constitutional violations.
Sometimes the court has to depart from precedence in order to uphold Constitutional principles, it is not violating the Constitution to do so.
And the court follows that rule at it's own discretion. To quote:What you stated is correct.
But it doesn't address the 2nd underlined portion of my post #52.
I haven't the faintest idea of what kinds of studies and polls have been carried out in "the Jewish nation," but I see no reason to suspect Jews, no matter where they live, are any different, gender orientation wise, than anyone else.
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