Most Christians consider the book of Revelation to be "prophetic" (that's why it's called a revelation). The question is in how literally we take it. Yes, it is largely told through symbolism and allegory, but that in itself doesn't invalidate the content of the text, ESPECIALLY since it is essentially reinforcing ideas that come from other scripture.
Reinforcing or using for justification? For instance many Jews feel that Matthew took the prophecy of Isaiah out of Context, could James not have done the same thing? But even further the allegory mix would work well given taht both Daniel and Ezekial were written at a time of oppression, so wouldn't
Correct! There will be no doubt that he exists once this happens.
Yes, I was making a broad generalization intentionally. I don't know what the exact numbers are. But even if the exact number is only ONE percent of all people on the fact of the earth, one percent of 7 billion is still 70 million people. While the term "many" is subjective and relative, hopefully you can see the point I am making now. It was not my intent to suggest that most atheists would fall into this category.
In the context of 7 billion however, 70 million is not many though. you are just using it to mean an undefined large number but is that actually true that it is large when looking at the overall population of 7 billion. Because that number can be less than one percent of the population as well.
I do as well. :yes:
Was it?
Turning to the book of Exodus, most Bible readers must admit that they were at least slightly startled the first time they read about God hardening Pharaohs heart, and then His punishing Pharaoh for that same hard-heartedness. In dealing with these allegations, three distinct declarations are made with regard to the hardening of Pharaohs heart. First, the text states that God hardened Pharaohs heart (7:3; 9:12; 10:1,20,27; 11:10; 14:4,8), and the hearts of the Egyptians (14:17). Second, it is said that Pharaoh hardened his own heart (8:15,32; 9:34), that he refused to humble himself (10:3), and that he was stubborn (13:15). Third, the text uses the passive form to indicate that Pharaohs heart was hardened, without giving any indication as to the source (7:13,14,22; 8:19; 9:7,35). The questions that arise from this state of affairs are: (1) did God harden Pharaoh on some occasions, while Pharaoh hardened himself on others? (2) Did God do all the hardening of Pharaoh, with the references to Pharaoh hardening himself being the result of God forcing him to do so against his own will? (3) Are all three declarations given in the text actually parallel expressions that mean the same thing? (4) Are the three declarations distinct from one another in their meaning, but all true in their own respects? Is the God of the Bible an unjust, cruel Being?
In the case of Pharaoh, God hardened Pharaohs heart in the sense that God provided the circumstances and the occasion for Pharaoh to be forced to make a decision. God sent Moses to place His demands before Pharaoh. Moses merely announced Gods instructions. God even accompanied His Word with miraclesto confirm the divine origin of the message (cf. Mark 16:20). Pharaoh made up his own mind to resist Gods demands. Of his own accord, he stubbornly refused to comply. Of course, God provided the occasion for Pharaoh to demonstrate his unyielding attitude. If God had not sent Moses, Pharaoh would not have been faced with the dilemma of whether to release the Israelites. So God was certainly the instigator and initiator. But He was not the author of Pharaohs defiance.
Apologetics Press - Who Hardened Pharaoh's Heart?
I've seen that before but we still have matters were God would still harden Pharoahs heart. God hardens pharoahs heart way more times than pharoah hardens his own and grows stubborn....
Do you mind elaborating on that?
I'm talking about the war in heaven when Satan and his angels rebelled against God, and fought against Michael and his angels before being cast out of heaven. There are references in Isaiah, Ezekiel and Revelation.
I figured that was what you were mention but I wanted to be sure. Isaiah mentions Lucifer which when read in it's entirity is talking about a Bablyonian King. Ezekial as well I guess you are talking about Ezekial 28? Which was about the City of Tyre? Mind you the story of being cast down in Ezekial is also found in Bablyonian mythology of Ethanu and Zu.
Revelations is the only one that makes a statement about Satan and his Demons, this came to be during the 2nd temple restoration where the Devil (Satan) began to take a more "I am the great evil f", rather than God sending the Devil to do it's duty of being the the one that accuses/opposes.
If they have already died, the state of their soul is "death". That is, they are "asleep" in death until the resurrection of the dead, at which point their soul will be alive again during final judgement. If you want to know what the state of their mind is after resurrection, I'd imagine that it would be a much better state at that point than they are now. If they have the metal capacity to choose to accept Jesus and they do, then they are saved. If they do not, then they most likely will have the same opportunity that everyone else will come final judgement. Since we will all have that opportunity, it is reasonable to assume that they would not suffer from the same mentally debilitating state then as they do now. Scripture says that the Lord judges in righteousness and that the deceptive influences will be removed. That suggests (to me at least) that there will be no "mentally ill" after the resurrection. And then there is Isa 35:4-6, which James already quoted.
What's the difference between the mind and the soul? More specifically what is the soul?