Shermana
Heretic
The KJV is not the only version to use "begotten:" the American Standard, the Douay-Rheims, the New American Standard, the New King James (they must have been just as ignorant as the original translators), the Darby Translation, the Webster Bible, the Third Millennium Bible, Young's Literal Translation to name a few. Is it possible that there are more than one way to translate the original?
Nice avoidance of my question, but it is possible in a sense that translations are not always word-for-word but "Thought for thought", but they in those cases are not being Literal. If you're not concerned about what the Greek actually says and want a translation that suits a traditional audience that essentially DEMANDS it to be translated it that way, then you're cool. There was in fact outcry against the "one and only" issue because "begotten" was for some reason such a sancrosanct word for so many in that verse. For whatever reason, publishers are aware that "begotten" can make the difference of millions of sales and use in churches or not, regardless of its accuracy. I wouldn't call them "ignorant" or "stupid" as you have, but I would call them "embellishing". With that said however, Monogenes can have an implication of "begotten", as long as you understand its an implication and not the actual word itself. If I said "I'm my mom's one and only", obviously that would imply "begotten".
The question, what do you think Monogenes means in the Greek? Does it have a necessary implication of a state of being born? In LUke 7:12 for example, it is used for "Only son", but guess what, the word "Son" is a different word. Hence, it only means "only". Good luck finding a translation that says "Only begotten son" for Luke 7:12.
Also, do notice in Hebrews 11:17, Isaac was called Abraham's ("one and only") "Only begotten" son (Monogenes), but does that mean "Only begotten"? What about Ishmael? Apparently he doesn't count for some reason. So in that case, what do we do with the word "Monogenes"?
As much as I like Young's Literal, they sometimes do sell out for the crowd-pleasing translation once in a while, such as with this case.
So yes, there are possible translations if you don't mind those that deviate from the actual text. If you're cool with that, that's fine, but if you're going to argue about what the Greek itself says, you're gonna be stuck in a situation where your translation falls flat because it's more of a crowd pleaser than an attempt for total accuracy.
By all means, please tell me why it does not say "Only begotten son" in any of your translations in Luke 7:12, thanks.
So let me ask you again, why did the NIV and others translate it that way? Were they stupid? Ignorant? Lying?
And with that said however, your original point about the word "begotten" is still disproven, since it is only ever meant for direct physical birth in the text, and reading anything more into it is baseless.
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