Did you borrow it from paganism, or make it up yourself?
Technically, I am a Pagan.
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Did you borrow it from paganism, or make it up yourself?
Technically, I am a Pagan.
Tell me something I don't know.
Lol.I think you need to get a life.
To understand what a Jew believes about 3:15 (assuming some monolithic and universally accepted singular canon of Jewish belief about anything) you would have to understand FIRST what the yetzer hara is (the evil inclination) then what the role of Hasoton is. Then you would need to look at the range of understandings about the literal vs. metaphorical role of the text of Genesis and the literal vs. metaphorical understandings of the serpent and what the sin was. The one thing it WASN'T, according to Judaism, was "Satan who is against God".Well as a Jew, how would you explain Genesis 3:15 in the Hebrew scriptures...it should be a part of what Jews believe.
To understand what a Jew believes about 3:15 (assuming some monolithic and universally accepted singular canon of Jewish belief about anything) you would have to understand FIRST what the yetzer hara is (the evil inclination) then what the role of Hasoton is. Then you would need to look at the range of understandings about the literal vs. metaphorical role of the text of Genesis and the literal vs. metaphorical understandings of the serpent and what the sin was. The one thing it WASN'T, according to Judaism, was "Satan who is against God".
I tried that in posts 427 and 432. It didn't seem to satisfy.I disagree.
Hashem addresses the Serpent. That's pretty much it and anything beyond stating this simple fact is pure overkill.
Sorry, but I don't see how you come to your conclusion. God, plus 3 men equals God and three men. Men leave and God stays, later, there are two men. This does not mean that God suddenly became one of the 3 men and is subtracted from "men." In fact, God remained God and while 3 men left, 2 men arrived at another location. Then God left. You completely misunderstand Rashi's point. Rashi is quoting the understanding that each angel had a particular purpose (in Judaism, an angel has a specific mission and then can't do anything else). The one who came to give news to Sarah departed while the other two went to Sdom (1 to destroy and one to save). All of this is from the medrash rabbah and, IIRC, the talmud. I can get you more citations if you would like.
According to your understanding, God leaves at verse 33, so there should be 3 who arrive in Sdom since none is left with Avraham. Why only 2 in Sdom if God was one of them and eventually (before getting to Sdom in 19:1) all 3 left? Simple -- The three were separate from God. Each had a mission. One mission was done.
Your seeing no other way seems like a reflection of blinders. The men are identified as arriving and leaving. God is identified as separate. Conflating them is an act of convenience to fit a predetermined theological need. It isn't textual.
Exactly. Men arrive, men leave. God remains. Seeing God as one of the men is not what the text says.
I don't recall the text saying that only 2 men leave, only that two men arrive at the next location. The text says "the men" leave. You have to claim that only 2 men leave for your point to work. That's not textual. You have to infer that even though God was not counted as one of the men in the first 2 verses, he suddenly is now. That's not in the text. No matter how many times you claim that that reading makes sense to you, that doesn't change what is in the text.
Men left, and then 10 verses later, 2 men arrived in Sdom. Deciding that this means that God changes from 3+1 to one of the 3 is the extra textual fact you have to invent to make this make sense.
Actually, that was addressed a long time ago. Nedarim 3a.
No, you have it backward. You have decided that Jesus is a god-man so you need to read text to support that conclusion.
The motive for this forced reading is strong for the Christian, in fact necessary or else his entire theological house of cards collapses.
If, instead, you are honest about a) what the text says and b) how the text has been understood since before Jesus was born, you would have to admit that the forced reading you rely on is unstable at best and dishonest more likely.
And if it actually means count chocula what does that mean for you? Invent something and ask its implication? That's a silly. Listing "If's" opens the door to anything you want. If Jesus never existed, then what? If Mohammed was a prophet of God and invalidates Christianity, then what?
Actually, it is debated and the historical record, while favoring some level of existence is fairly light on actual verified sources.
For your faith, God must be corporeal. Your agenda is clear and your need apparent. Don't understate the extremity of that need. If God is non-corporeal then Jesus is not divine, and all your faith collapses.
I look for the honesty of the text as a whole while you deny the value of huge chunks of it. I don't like intellectual dishonesty and, even worse, unsubstantiated posturing. You have quoted a variety of sources here and elsewhere which you simply don't understand. My motive is simply to protect the integrity of the text from "what ifs".
I'll try to make this simple and straightforward. It is up to you to show me something different.At this point, Rosends, all I can do is laugh. Truly. You read nothing I say, you counter none of my arguments, you just reflect your obvious bias back to me. It's quite futile. It's not textual, except that's it written in the text, that God departs.
You say the third guy leaves, except, that's not actually in the text. Period. You use theologically bias sources as authority and your own bias to determine that, still accusing me of doing exactly what you're in fact doing.
IT'S NOT. IN. THE. TEXT. THREE APPEAR. TWO ARRIVE IN SODOM. ONE IS NOT ADDRESSED IN THE TEXT (well, they are, you just don't "read" it that way). How long shall you pander around the clearly obvious: you have no explanation. It's not written in the hebrew where the third guy goes, you just assume since the Lord (YHVH) speaks to Sarah (through the angel, I suppose?) so he then leaves (even though it's.. not in the text). Except, in Chapter 16 and 22, there's a distinction when God speaks through an angel (malak). Not here, though.
Add. Add. Omit. Infer. Agenda. Lol.
So yeah. Laugh. How many times do I have to keep saying God corporeal or not here makes no nevermind to me... it's like kicking a puppy at this point... :\
Onward.
I'll try to make this simple and straightforward. It is up to you to show me something different.
God arrives. He is named explicitly
Three men arrive. they are listed explicitly
"men" leave. No number. "Men" are listed explicitly
God leaves, named explicitly.
Two angels arrive in Sdom.
No where does it say that 2 men leave.
22 And the men turned from there and went to Sodom, and Abraham was still standing before the Lord. 23 And Abraham approached and said, "Will You even destroy the righteous with the wicked?
No where does it include God as the men.
1 Now the Lord appeared to him in the plains of Mamre, and he was sitting at the entrance of the tent when the day was hot.
2 And he lifted his eyes and saw, and behold, three men were standing beside him, and he saw and he ran toward them from the entrance of the tent, and he prostrated himself to the ground.
No where does it even say that the 2 men who arrive in chapter 19 are the same as any of the men in 18.
And the Lord departed when He finished speaking to Abraham, and Abraham returned to his place.
You simply can't show otherwise.
You really do need to see God as a man it seems. Sort of sad, really, but whatever floats your boat.
No word is written in Greek. It is all in Hebrew. וְאֵיבָה | אָשִׁית בֵּינְךָ וּבֵין הָאִשָּׁה וּבֵין זַרְעֲךָ וּבֵין זַרְעָהּ הוּא יְשׁוּפְךָ רֹאשׁ וְאַתָּה תְּשׁוּפֶנּוּ עָקֵב:Genesis was written in Hebrew. Genesis 3:15 is written in Hebrew. One word in Genesis is written in Greek.
More precisely, Judaism rejects your notion of "Satan" entirely.The tribe of Judah rejects the creature God is talking to as Satan. They reject Satan did anything wrong. They reject that Satan murdered the whole human family.
In Hebrew, the root is z-r-ayin. Not Greek, Hebrew. In its root form, it is used 53 times in the 5 books of Moses, the first time in Gen 1:11 and 12.The key word(in Greek) in Genesis 3:15 translated into English is seed. In Greek the meaning of the word is "SPERM, OFFSPRING."
Actually, Genesis 5 doesn't list Seth as the first, just the one worthy of note in this aspect of the story of mankind. Neither Cain nor Abel is listed, and yet in 4:1 and 2, both are listed as being his sons.Genesis 5 list Seth as Adams first child. (Seth meaning replacement for Able.) Cain is not listed as a child of Adam.
No word is written in Greek. It is all in Hebrew. וְאֵיבָה | אָשִׁית בֵּינְךָ וּבֵין הָאִשָּׁה וּבֵין זַרְעֲךָ וּבֵין זַרְעָהּ הוּא יְשׁוּפְךָ רֹאשׁ וְאַתָּה תְּשׁוּפֶנּוּ עָקֵב:
More precisely, Judaism rejects your notion of "Satan" entirely.
In Hebrew, the root is z-r-ayin. Not Greek, Hebrew. In its root form, it is used 53 times in the 5 books of Moses, the first time in Gen 1:11 and 12.
Actually, Genesis 5 doesn't list Seth as the first, just the one worthy of note in this aspect of the story of mankind. Neither Cain nor Abel is listed, and yet in 4:1 and 2, both are listed as being his sons.
They reject that Satan murdered the whole human family.
This is the best your religion can muster? False doctrine? Now they have names!
So really, there's two choices:
1) this guy, you, Rashi and others of your ilk are 100% full of it, OR
2) Moses is an inept writer or otherwise not divinely inspired because he can't seem to consistently identify God, messengers, The Angel of The Lord throughout the same groupings of text.
I'll go with #1.
I'm going to use your own Tanakh to destroy your flimsy position some more (emphasis mine, for your sake):
22 And the men turned from there andwent toSodom, and Abraham wasstill standing beforethe Lord. 23 And Abrahamapproachedand said, "Will You even destroy the righteous with the wicked?
Men turned and went to Sodom. The amount of them is undisclosed right here, indeed, but the men we're talking about went to SODOM! Be assured, THESE MEN WENT TO SODOM. Okay?? GOT IT??
You can rest assure that Abraham was alsoSTANDING BEFOREthe Lord. He evenapproacheshim! Because you need to approach the invisible, all encompassing, unseen God, right???? He couldn't just stand where he was standing and speak, am I right?
Had to go walking up to the invisible, unseen Yahweh. Right?? RIGHT?? COME ON. SAY IT WITH ME NOW.
Yawn. We've been over this. It's right here:
1 Now the Lordappearedto him in the plains of Mamre, and he was sitting at the entrance of the tent when the day was hot.
.
Abraham becomes aware of said appearing God! Three men standing near him, and like any good host he approaches them... BUT WAIT! He falls to the ground in submission!?? Is that how Abraham, or any Jew, treat random men?
I mean, there's being respectful, but to prostrate oneself on the floor, and address them collectively as... Adonai (pre-Christian LXX says God, by the way)? Begging them to stick around and have the best stuff he can possible offer them (non-kosher, of course).
No, surely, he saw these three as being something more than just random guys? Can we agree on this point?
OK, so let’s say, for the sake of argument, that (as the commentators and their 100% BS say) Abe saw something special about them. So? So now your “proof” is that Moses included a verse which mentions that Abe saw God? You lost me. If God appeared to Abe, that shouldn’t be mentioned?And since no mention of their appearance or stature is made by the author, we can assume, can we not, that Abraham, by his reaction, saw something special about them?Otherwise, why does Moses even bother including verse 1?
How about this. In this text, show me how God appearing (v1), and then Abraham approaching and submitting like this IS NOT God? Keep in mind, this isn't the only time Abraham approaches the Lord. He does so in V23 as well! Don't forget!
You really are a small creature, aren't you? Do you really use chapter 19 as a barrier to understanding? It's the same story continued. Seriously, it'll be okay if you trust v22 from chapter 18 that these are the guys who went to Sodom.
Even Rabbi nobody I posted up there acknowledges it. Even Rashi acknowledges it THESE ARE THE SAME PEOPLE AS CHAPTER 18!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
WAIT! Hey, how bout that. Itdoes sayhow many went to Sodom, after all. Two did! Wait-- where'd the third one go!? Oh my Lord, it's as if verse 22 didn't state two. But then Moses stated two but a few verses later!
Where'd the pesky third guy go? If he wasn't one of the men clearly identified as GOING TO SODOM FROM VERSE 22, where could he have gone off to!?
Where's the third guy, Rosends? Where is he?Tell me.Show me in the text, the text itself, where the third guy went off to. Why is Mosesso clearon all other characters in this scene and he just completely forgets about dude #3?
Either you're wrong, or Moses has no business writing the Word of God.Are you a prophet of the Lord? Has God used you to free HIS PEOPLE? To write HIS laws? Do you have business dictating the word of God, rosends????
He wrote exactly what he was supposed to. You just don't like it.
The two are “reconciled” only if you see a problem that needs to be reconciled. Three men show up, one does his job so when they all leave, one doesn’t have to go with the others. Meanwhile God, who showed up earlier, stays later.Two are reconciled with Ch 19 v 1 and Ch 18 v 22. Where's the third?
God appears.
3 men are seen. Abraham approaches, addressing and treating them in an over-the-top fashion.
The men speak collectively.
God speaks individually.
Abraham walks with the men.
Men depart to Sodom.
God and Abraham shoot the breeze.
God then leaves, Abraham goes back to his tent or something.
Two men arrive in Sodom (reconciles v22, clearly).
Yep. One of the three men characters in this scene is most likely God.
Moses is clear about all players in this scene concisely, yet conveniently, forgets the third? Nope. He handled it. You just don't like it.
You argue like "it's not the same people from chapter 18!" when your beloved sages aren't even so stupid. You can't show your position without Rabbi whoever I posted above. Or Rashi, or Kimchi, or whatever other false teacher you believe over the WRITTEN. WORD. OF. GOD.
Haha. Keep projecting man. It's helping you be right. Really. I can't make my stance any clearer on my "needing" God to be a man in this passage, let alone the OT. Doesn't concern me. AT ALL.
What scrolls have the word in Greek?Not true. In the scrolls the word seed is written in GREEK. You can change it in a book, but you can't change the scrolls. You reject There is a Satan, as you reject Jesus.
In 2,000 years the thinking of the people of Judah has not changed.
so Gen 4:1 is a lie?Satan had sex with Adams women, who Adam later names Eve. The mixing of human seed with none human see produced Cain. This mixed seed causes humans to die. It is why Satan is called a murderer.
All the trees in the Bble are symbolic. What makes the tree in the center of the garden a real tree?
Out of sheer curiosity, when did that happen?
so Gen 4:1 is a lie?