Some redactions are easily proven because they were not contained in the earliest and best MSS. Major examples are the longer ending of Mark 16:9-20 and the periscope adulterae John 7:53, both which inject Pauline theology in the gospels. Other redactions are discovered by textual criticism which relies on contradictions or changes in writing style or language, etc.
Redactions do not mean that later Pauline influenced writers were the redactors though. I am not doubting that there are redactions; I am very familiar with them. However, what I am doubting is that these redactions were done by people in the Pauline school (who often disagreed with Paul anyway, and in fact, we see interpolations within authentic letters of Paul, because later "Pauline" teachers found what Paul was saying to be too liberal).
In addition, you can't judge the entire book by a later redaction. There is a later addition because later writers did not agree with the earlier writers.
To see Tabor's view of Pauline influence in the gospels, see pages 7,12,49,90,147 and 148 in his very recent book Paul and Jesus.
I don't have Tabor's book with me. I am currently on vacation/work trip, and did not bring it with me. If you want to discuss certain ideas though, please post them here.
And here is an excerpt from a link that shows some of the parallels:
[*]The dominant use of the noun
euangelion (Note how often the singular noun euangelion (gospel) is in Mark and Paul and how rare it is prior to and in the rest of the NT (cf. Steve Mason,
Methods and Categories: Judaism and Gospel).
Matthew also used the term though. More so, other Greek writers used the term as well, and forms of the term were used in the Septuagint.
Luke though, who actually speaks of Paul, never uses the term nor does John. And even Mark doesn't use it very often when one takes away the redacted part.
More so, the link that is attached here, by Steve Mason, actually contradicts your comment that the Gospels followed a Pauline idea. He actually states that Luke, John, and Matthew take a completely different route.
Finally, the same use of a word, one that is developed in the Christian community, does not suggest much. The link attached says that Paul developed and defined the word for Christian use. However, everyone who uses it does not need to be a follower of Paul. It would be like saying that anyone who uses the term Allah must be a Muslim. That simply is not true.
[*]The significance of the cross as the apocalyptic turning point of history. Also, the view of the crucifixion as an atoning death (Mark 10:45; Rom 3:25; 5:8).
Mark 10:45 says nothing of this. It does not mention the cross, an apocalyptic turning point, or anything. Neither does Romans. They see a significance in the death of Jesus, but so did all early members of the Jesus movement, regardless of following Paul or not.
The apocalyptic turning point for Paul though was the resurrection. In fact, that is a common idea in Judaism of that time, that of resurrection. While Paul subscribed to the idea of a general resurrection, none of the Gospel writers (with the exception of Matthew you actually states that it occurred when Jesus was resurrected) do. They see Jesus as being special.
[*]Jesus victory over demonic powers (Markan exorcisms; Rom 8:38-39; 1 Cor 15:24).
Or, in other words, a common motif of Jewish leaders during that time. That is why we also see it in Matthew and Luke, as well as the OT.
[*]The advent of the age of divine blessings in fulfillment of prophecy (Mark 1:1-14; Rom 3:21-22). Jesus as the New Adam (Rom 5:12-19; 1 Cor 15:45; the temptation narrative in Mark and Jesus dazzling clothes in the transfiguration).
Mark doesn't talk about the New Adam. That is a Pauline idea, that is not found in the Gospels.
As for the age of divine blessing in the fulfillment of prophecy, other Gospels talk about it as well, and they borrow it from the OT. In fact, Mark actually quotes from Isaiah. In fact, all of the Gospel writers quote from the OT, and all focus on Jesus fulfillment of prophecy. As did other Jewish writers who saw a messiah in someone else.
[*]Importance of faith in Jesus or God and the dualism between the elect who can truly see versus the blind outsiders (Mark 4:10-12; Rom 11:7-10; 1 Cor 2:6-16). Dualism can lead to a universalistic perspective (Mark 10:45; Rom 11:35-42).
This is also seen in Gnostic texts, that largely reject Paul. Not a convincing argument.
[*]The mission to the Jew first and then to the Gentile (Syrophoenician woman in Mark 7:27-29; Rom 1:16).
And Luke and Matthew stated the same thing. In fact, one can find the same idea in the OT, which is why Paul quotes the OT in his defense.
[*]Jesus came to redeem sinners (Mark 2:17; Rom 4:15; 5:18-19).
Also found in Gnostic ideas, which largely rejected Paul.
[*]Negative views of Peter with the rest of the twelve (e.g. hardnesss of heart, calling Peter Satan or 3 denials) and Jesus family (Mark 3:20-21, 31-35; 8:31-33; Gal 2).
Peter might be scolded, but the overall impression isn't negative. You can't take one or two events as if they are all characteristics. Plus, the view that Paul has for the family of Jesus is quite positive. He sees James as being the leader of the church, and never says anything bad about him. In fact, Paul submits to him.
[*]The widening of the divine purpose to incorporate Gentiles was accomplished by an apocalyptic change in the Law (e.g., see the very similar language in Mark 7:19 and Rom 14:20 about the abrogation of the food laws).
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If you read all of Paul, he only says that Gentiles do not have to follow the food laws, and or the other Jewish laws. After all, they aren't Jews. There was no change in the law for Paul. Instead, looking at the OT, he saw that all the nations would be able to enter into fellowship, and he implemented that in his ideas as he thought it was the end of times.
So what do you think? Is this enough evidence to put the Gospel of Mark (along with other later Paulinists = Colossians/Ephesians, Luke-Acts, Pastorals, Ignatius) in the Pauline sphere of influence or are these alleged parallels simply generally held more widely in the early Christian movement?
Well, Luke-Acts often completely disagrees with what you listed, and in fact, Steve Mason, in the first link, said that he went a completely different direction. As for the parallels, they mean pretty much nothing besides that these authors were influenced by Hebrew scripture.
The argument is extremely weak, as I showed above.
Other items to consider are that the Q document and the Didache contain no Pauline theology. I think the gospel of Thomas is also devoid of Pauline doctrine, through I will have to recheck to be sure.
We don't have the Q document. We have very little idea what is in the Q document, and many scholars reject the existence of a Q document as it is only hypothetical. We can not say what is not in the Q document as we don't have it. As for the Didache, and Thomas, I am sure that if you wanted to find Jewish ideas in either, you could say that they resemble Paul, as that is basically what you have done.
Paul was a Jew. Most of the early Christian writers were Jews. They used Hebrew Scripture. Of course there are going to be some parallels.