The country was a theocracy, ruled by the priesthood,which fulfilled all the governmental positions, and left (more or less) alone by the Client Rulers and Romans. It was centred...... at the temple, and the entire priesthood was on duty during that festival.
Judea was a Roman province. It was directly ruled by Rome.
No. The whole point of the exchange was a massive flow of funds into the priesthood and government. What a cracking way to fleece the common people.
Not at all. The exchange was to cash in money that was tainted with currency that was acceptable in the Temple. This is something that is universally accepted. E.P. Sanders supports it in his book, The Historical Jesus. Bart Ehrman supports it in his book, Jesus the Apocalyptic Prophet. The Anchor Bible Dictionary also states the same thing. And nearly any text that actually deals with the subject will say the same thing. It was necessary. If you want, I can give direct quotations.
OT? Jesus was extremely enraged about what the aristo-classes (mostly priesthood?) were doing to his own common folks. He had few good words (if any) for them. What corruption!
Outhouse claims that this story is drawn from the OT. I don't buy it. I also don't think that he was enraged. After all, he was able to check out the Temple the day before. He was able to check out the Temple after the next day. If he was so enraged, why did he only act out once?
Not all....... but in this case, Jesus used force and voice! = anger!
That doesn't equal anger. There is nothing suggesting that he did this out of anger. The fact that he is able to be at the Temple before this event and be perfectly okay with it, as well after the fact, suggests that it wasn't about anger.
His whole ministry, Jesus wanted his own people, the common workers of Galilee (mostly) to live in the 'Kingdom of God', the true theocracy as laid down by the forefathers. It was God's Kingdom, God's people, and they were God's children, the sons (and daughters?) of God. And look what was happening to them!
The priestly and aristocracy also had a place in the Kingdom of God though. All of Israel did. Not to mention, no one had to participate in this exchange of money and buying goods. It wasn't forced on anyone. It was there for their conveyance and so that they could easily participate in the Temple cult. There is no record of people revolting against such.
Went to John = Wrong. It does not say that
It does say that he went to John. The verse states that Jesus came from Nazareth and was baptized by John in the Jordan. The act of coming somewhere (and if we check a map, the Jordan is quite a walk) means that he had to travel, as in he went from Nazareth to the Jordan.
Yes, it is a stretch, and so Matthew's reports of Nazareth are in question.
This doesn't put Matthew's reports of Nazareth in question. The fact that all of the Gospels place Jesus in Nazareth, a place that is not mentioned elsewhere, tells us that he was from Nazareth. There is no reason to make something like that up, especially with the polemic it finds in John (where basically, we are told that nothing good comes from Nazareth, as in, it did not have a high reputation. It was lowly).
The fact that Matthew has to try to find a way to make sense of this, by taking some obscure "prophecy" and twist it just to justify Jesus from coming from such place is even more evidence that he was in fact from Nazareth. And we can be sure this is a creation from Matthew as he is the only one who mentions it.
Ignore? No...... I just want to make my points and write my opinions in this debate. I have read the gospels and extracts from Josephus, many scholar-intros from wiki, and some scholar's books, such as Crosson, Vermes and Sanders. These have helped me, but I want to think for myself. I don't want to be told what I must believe.
There is a difference from thinking for yourself though, and ignoring everything that is written. Some of the conclusions you are coming to are not based on evidence, and fly in the face of what is written.
A prophet is not without honour.... except....... in his home land?
? Not sure what you're trying to point out? Jesus was make the statement that at home, he had no honor. He found this out as the people he grew up with rejected him.
Since few scholars agree, whichever one I choose will cause challenges such as yours, above......?
Scholars agree on much of the basics. It is the precise details that there is disagreement with.
And within actual scholarship, people don't simply push other's works out. They debate the merits of each idea that is being discussed.
Hang on........ who says they stayed? Would you have hung around? Where are the scholars? Matthew (who you quote) says they did not. John (who you have quoted) says they did not. I do accet that much of the Nativity is ET, but is it based upon some truth? You see? There is a record of that, but you chose to ignore it, a fault which you pointed at me a few lines up.
There is no record that they fled. The nativity can not be accepted as actual evidence for your position as it had nothing to do with Sepphoris. It is only in Matthew that the family flees, and that is from Bethlehem in Judea, to Nazareth, the exact vicinity you claim they are fleeing from.
John never talks about them fleeing. He places Jesus as having been from Nazareth. And the Gospels as a whole place the family of Jesus in Nazareth. There is no evidence that they fled from the vicinity. The only talk about fleeing is to Nazareth.
He didn't 'lose it' the day before....... he was very controlled. But, finally, he had had ........enough.
That is nothing more than mere speculation that simply is not supported by the evidence. Why was he able to handle it the day before, when supposedly he was being introduced to the corruption, and not the day after? It doesn't make sense, and it isn't supported.
Well, was he an Apocalyptic teacher or not? You need to make your mind up about this first. I don't think he was. I think he was a teacher, guide, social worker, healer and mystic......... something along those lines.
I have made up my mind. He was an apocalyptic preacher, or at the very least, and eschatological preacher. That is why he preached about the Kingdom of God, which was concerning the end times.
Hang on...... He was working for God's Kingdom to be given back to the common people, as it was supposed to be, while they yet lived! Of course he believed in 'life after death', but that was different.
Who are you all? You wrote 'we know'.....?
We, as in the collective we. Being that we all have the information available to us.
As for the Kingdom of God, it was about the end times. The Kingdom of God could not be set up unless the Kingdom of Earth (Rome) was displaced or destroyed. The literature on the subject all states this. It was about the end times.
What? No sacrifices other than at the Temple. Come to the Temple. Bring your purses. Come regularly. And the poor working people just did what they were told. No record of a problem? Have you read about the continuous and repeated revolts? These were not all against Rome. !
Show me some revolts against the Temple, and the Temple itself. Where did people revolt against the temple because they offered those who wanted to participate in the Temple cult the means (the proper coinage, and proper offerings) to do so. Participating in the Temple cult was voluntary, and in fact, most did not do it regularly. They did it when they could, and did so out of love.
If they didn't want to participate, they didn't have to. And in fact, we do see Jews who simply rejected the current practice (the Essenes).
In this particular den they were fleecing the common people.
And what is your evidence for this? Were they forcing people to do anything? No, they were not. You have no evidence.
Ahhhh.. You play the 'what scholars?' card. Most of them you would not be able to agree with, they all have such different views, etc.
Now,first you must lay some ground rules about scholars. Am I allowed to cherrypick from them? A bit from here,something from there? Or must I show a continuity by showing the findings of one scholar?
Pick whatever scholars you want. As long as they are credible (credible, I mean that they actually are in the field (I don't want you quoting mathematicians for example), they actually have a degree (or are at least respected) in the field, and they aren't totally off in their own world (as in conspiracy theories. If they make an argument that Jesus was Caesar or something, I'm not going to accept them).
You can cherrypick from them as well. I don't care. As long as, if you are taking what they say, you take all what they say in the context. If they state something is a probability, but not likely, I don't want you taking just the first half of the statement.
I am prepared to name just one scholar, whose work and findings I must accept in total. But then so must you! If you play the scholar-card you surely cannot accept one part and ignore/reject others from the same person?
Surely you can. To fully agree with any scholar is very unlikely. Not even scholars who highly respect each other are going to follow everything each other does.
You hinted earlier that parts of Meier's findings were 'wrong..ish'? You first!
My main disagreement with Meier is probably that he sees too much historicity in the Gospel of John.