Yes, but they are effectively the same thing (that's why one is a subset of the other).
Nope. if A is a strict subset of B, then A is not equal to B. I can be an atheist without being a naturalist.
For instance, gays are a subset of humans. Is humans = gays? Are you gay?
Right, but who decides and why?
Who decided at the time of ancient Greece? Apollo?
Logic dictates (that is, if you want to be consistent with the scientific method) that every event has as a prior cause. It does not follow, however, that every cause must have a cause. The "chain of physical events" you describe is just that: a chain of physical events. It has nothing to do with the cosmological argument properly stated. Rightly understood, the "first cause" is radically different than anything sequential. It's the ground of being and ontologically distinct from any chain of events.
Honestly, I don't care about the cosmological argument, yet. I am just addressing the claim "everything that begins to exist has a cause". But if you say that not all causes have a cause, how many uncaused causes do you have in mind?
Incidentally, science says also that any physical state is reducible to a prior physical state. Prior to your decision to change it and even prior to your existence. There are no new physical states popping out into existence. Information is conserved.
Do you agree with this physical principle?
I will say this: if the will to write the post activated a chain of physical effects, then will exists independently of or transcends the chain of physical events. If the will to post was instead activated by the chain of events, then "meaning, consciousness, and intelligence are purely arbitrary and relative terms given to certain highly complex mechanical structures. . . . The opinions and judgements of intelligence are products of mechanical (or statistical) necessity. This must apply to all opinions and judgements, for all are equally mere phenomena of the mechanical world-process. There can be no question of one judgement being more true than another, any more than there can be question of the phenomenon fish being more true than the phenomenon bird. . . . This is intellectual suicide—the total destruction of thought—to such a degree that even the rationalist’s own concepts of mechanism, unconscious process, statistical necessity, and the like, also become purely arbitrary and meaningless terms."
Yes, but I would not call it intellectually suicide. This is just what physics tells us. I would say that thinking otherwise si intellectual suicide. There is no evidence whatsoever that thought can create novelty in the physical state of the Universe. There is no new information created by thought. There cannot be.
That change in the physics of the computer caused by your post is reducible to the state of the Universe billions of years before your existence. Your will, as the product of physical events itself, is itself reducible to that prior state.
Anything short of that is metaphysical, and flies in the face of what we know about physics. Which begs the question: why do you use science to prove your points when science conclusions are in complete opposition to what you want to prove?
Maybe we should stick with philosophy or metaphysics; don't you think?
Ciao
- viole