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"I said," ye are gods? Christians Only, Please!

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
JayJayDee said:
...

Adam was created a long time before his wife. We know this because He was placed in the garden and he was educated by his Father in all things first. He had the privilege of observing and naming all the animals. He would have to study and observe their nature and habits before giving them appropriate names.

....

The Bible does NOT say Adam was created a long time before his woman. I get tired of you guys making up bull - that the Bible does not actually say.

There are a lot of Jewish writings concerning these creation texts, - and they say Adam means human, - and the first human was half male and half female, - and that they were split apart for procreation purposes. NO RIB. HALF.

Also - when looked at in the Hebrew - that is what it appears to be saying.

SO - Adam was NOT created before Chav'vah, nor was he educated first in all things.

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Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Norman: Let us examine the passage from the Hebrew Bible that underlies John 10:34. Jesus identified the passage Ye are gods as coming from the "law" (Greek nomos) of the Jews. Strictly speaking, of course, this is not entirely accurate, if the term law is taken to refer, as it often does, solely to the Pentateuch. For the passage is actually to be found in Psalm 82:6, which would place it not in the Law or the Prophets, but in the Writings (Hebrew ketûbim). It is to this psalm that I now turn.

1. God [ʾĕlōhîm] standeth in the congregation of the mighty [ʿădat ʾēl]; he judgeth among the gods [bəqereb ʾĕlōhîm].
2. How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.
3. Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy.
4. Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the hand of the wicked.
5. They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course.
6. I have said, Ye are gods [ʾĕlōhîm]; and all of you are children of the most High [bənê ʿelyôn].
7. But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.
8. Arise, O God [ʾĕlōhîm], judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

The question is, to whom is Psalm 82 addressed? This is not the easiest of questions. This poem is apparently very old, and its conceptual world is quite foreign to us.

In my opinion the 'gods' cannot be human judges for their punishment is to die 'like men. If they were already mortals, this would hardly be a serious penalty. I feel correct in my judgment that "Verse 7, with its simile, like men, seems fatal to the view that these are human judges.

Moreover, those who insist that the ʾĕlōhîm of Psalm 82 are simply mortal humans typically point to Exodus 21:6 and 22:8–9, where the term has frequently (e.g., in the King James Bible) been translated as "judges."

But there seems no particular reason, other than theological squeamishness, to prefer such a translation. What these verses seem to describe is a divinatory practice where a case is brought before "God" or "the gods" for decision. Rendering ʾĕlōhîm literally in these passages makes perfectly good sense. In fact, the ancient Latin Vulgate does exactly that (deos), as does the ancient Greek Septuagint (theos). These are, by a great distance, the most important and influential translations of the Old Testament in antiquity.

Martin Luther's 1545 translation, so central to the Protestant Reformation, has Götter ("gods"), and the standard modern Jewish version has "God." That interpretation seems to be a rather late, rabbinic one, and, has been approved, so far as I can see, by only one modern scholar, Kittel, and has been definitively rejected by all others on ample grounds." "Nor can it be denied that the fundamental meaning of 'elohim is 'gods,' and that only by a long stretch of the imagination and rather devious and uncertain hermeneutics can the meanings, 'rulers, kings' or 'judges,' be ascribed to it. The dominant view among contemporary scholars when they declare of Psalm 82 that it "refers to 'gods' . . . and not 'angels,' 'rulers,' 'judges,' or 'tenured professors.

There is a perfectly good Hebrew word for judge (shaphat). If Ps 82 meant to condemn wicked judges, why in the world didn't God inerrantly inspire the psalmist to use the word for judge? Why all this language about elohim, the council of el, and the bene elyon?

Other examples shed light on this. In Genesis 6:2, 4, and Job 1:6; 2:1, the members of the divine council are designated as bənê hā-ʾĕlōhîm ("the sons of God"). Psalm 97:7 addresses kōl-ʾĕlōhîm ("all [ye] gods").

Psalms 82:6…From an LDS Christian perspective, this all makes perfect sense, since the the sons of God are, just as described here, celestial beings who become human (like Adam), fall, and die. (In the NT, Christ allows these sons of God to become immortal again, and become like Christ, joint heirs, and one with the Father, but that is another discussion.)

The translation will never make elohim/judges, work in the hebrew of pslams 82:6, it is elohim/gods, or "bene elyon gods", the sons of Elyon, it forever will stand as it stands in the pure rabbinic statement, that it is, it will forever be what it says in the hebrew, u can dance around it, and try to twist the hebrew of it, but it will stand forever as "Elohim'gods'.........Jesus himself said, this scripture cannot be broken. John 10:

What are you supposed to be proving here?

You merely regurgitated what I had, - while purposely leaving out the FACT that Elohiym also means JUDGES/chosen ones/Kings/Priests, etc., - and the whole quote he quoted is about JUDGING - and it says they are HUMANS - not Gods, or angels.

I am well aware of what the Hebrew is, and you implying that there is no other translation - is BOGUS! Totally FALSE!

It would be absolutely ridiculous - and I might add NOT Hebrew - to say those Sons of God - are Gods! That would be full on PAGAN! That is NOT what it translates to.

Nor would Jesus - trained in his religion, - imply that they were GODS. (since you imply his using it means he is God) Again - totally Pagan.

ALL of Israel - are Sons of God - and obviously not real GODS! or Angels, etc!

Obviously the LDS "perspective" adds things that are NOT in the Bible.

This verse alone - tells us you are wrong, - as it says they are Adam - HUMANKIND!

Psa 82:7 Nevertheless as ADAM/human beings, shall die, and of a certainty, as all leaders perish/fall.


Psa 82:8 Arise o Elohiym/Judges, execute judgment on the land/nation; for you shall inherit the whole nation/people/land.


Try - just try to tell me, - ADAM - means angels, heavenly beings, or gods, etc!!!

I will add - where does it say - heavenly beings will inherit the earth??? Rather than humans???

Also - here is a verse using Elohiym as JUDGES.

1 Sa 2:25 If a man sins against a man, then Judges/Elohiym shall judge him. But if a man sins against YHVH, who shall pray for him? But they did not listen to the voice of their father because YHVH desired to put them to death.

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ether-ore

Active Member
If we consider what Adam had to accomplish before his wife was created, that allows quite a lengthy period of time for him to be educated and instructed. When Adam became acutely aware that he was the only creature without a mate, then it was time for God to give him one.
Adam had just one simple directive. Don't touch the tree of the knowledge of good and evil. Eat of that tree...and you will surely die. That command placed no hardship on the couple whatsoever. Satan made the fruit appear to be very beneficial to the woman, and so when Adam saw what she had done, instead of castigating her for her foolishness....he joined her, condemning themselves and their children to certain death. How could that ever be viewed as noble?

After reading all that you posted, I considered that the question I would respond to directly is the last part of the above quote from you. But let me preface it with this: I don't necessarily disagree with you that Adam may have preceded Eve by a significant period of time. I also think it likely that while Adam received his instructions directly from God, Eve on the other hand received them from Adam; so whereas Adam was operating on knowledge, Eve was operating on faith in what Adam told her. This made her more susceptible to temptation, but it was temptation mingled with thoughtful consideration on her part.

The thing is though, the commandment to multiply pertained to them both as a couple for obvious reasons. Whether you accept the Book of Mormon as germane to the issue or not is really beside the point. We know (as far as the Biblical account is concerned) that they did not have children until after they were banished from the Garden. Even though Adam may have preceded Eve by a significant amount of time, they as a couple had ample time while still in the Garden to have children if they were able. Except that the Bible does not mention children until after they left the Garden. Therefore, we cannot make the assumption that they did have children while in the Garden.

The Book of Mormon story makes sense to me even if it does not to you, so it is on that issue that we will have to part company. I'll leave you with this last though in order to answer your last question... It was noble because we would not be here if it had not been for Adam and Eve's sacrifice. Before coming here, we were all God's spirit children... spirits... we had never experienced physical bodies. But LDS doctrine tells me that we desired to have them. God wanted for us to progress and have what we desired, but we had to do it His way. we had to go through mortality to learn to subject our bodies to our spirits rather than the other way around. Mortality is a trial to see if we will subject our bodies to the will of God or whether we will become subject to Satan through the temptation of carnal desires wherein the body rules the spirit.

If we repent of our mistakes and thenceforth keep the commandments of God, then the Atonement of Jesus Christ is the means of obtaining forgiveness; allowing us to return home to our Heavenly Parents. If we do not repent, then we will not see the face of our Heavenly Father again with pleasure.
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
After reading all that you posted, I considered that the question I would respond to directly is the last part of the above quote from you. But let me preface it with this: I don't necessarily disagree with you that Adam may have preceded Eve by a significant period of time. I also think it likely that while Adam received his instructions directly from God, Eve on the other hand received them from Adam; ...

Before coming here, we were all God's spirit children... spirits... we had never experienced physical bodies. ...

1. Since the Bible does not say Adam preceded Chav'vah, - what makes you folks think you can preach that?

The first story - with the animal naming - says they were created together - male and female.

Gen 1:26 And God said, Let us make ADAM - HUMANKIND in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.

Gen 1:27 So God created man/ADAM/HUMANKIND in his own image, in the image of God created he them; male and female created he them.

Gen 1:28 And God blessed them, and God said unto them, Be fruitful, and multiply, and replenish the earth, and subdue it: and have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over every living thing that moveth upon the earth.

The second says they were joined together, and than split apart for procreation purposes.

2. The Bible doesn't say we were spirit children before having bodies. In fact it says God created bodies and breathed life into them.

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ether-ore

Active Member
what makes you folks think you can preach that?
Simple answer... LDS folks believe in revelation apart from the Bible. We think we can preach that because of freedom of speech and freedom of religion. That you do not accept it is fine. I have no problem with your choice not to believe what I testify to. I am a firm believer in freedom of conscience.
 

JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
Well, thank you for the part you did respond to.

After reading all that you posted, I considered that the question I would respond to directly is the last part of the above quote from you. But let me preface it with this: I don't necessarily disagree with you that Adam may have preceded Eve by a significant period of time. I also think it likely that while Adam received his instructions directly from God, Eve on the other hand received them from Adam; so whereas Adam was operating on knowledge, Eve was operating on faith in what Adam told her. This made her more susceptible to temptation, but it was temptation mingled with thoughtful consideration on her part.
I agree that Adam was instructed by God directly and that he, as family head was to instruct his wife and any children they had.

Her susceptibility to temptation was definitely there and the less educated she was...the more vulnerable she was to that temptation. This is why not much time would have elapsed between the end of the sixth day and the beginning of the seventh. Eve was created at the end of the sixth day and the eviction from the garden was at the start of the seventh, so not a big timeframe there.

The thing is though, the commandment to multiply pertained to them both as a couple for obvious reasons. Whether you accept the Book of Mormon as germane to the issue or not is really beside the point. We know (as far as the Biblical account is concerned) that they did not have children until after they were banished from the Garden.

I had a wise old elder once tell me that in their perfection, Adam and his wife would not have been lustful like we are at present....that is, their first thought at seeing one another naked was not to jump into bed. They were introduced and pledged to each other in marriage. In this "getting to know each other" period we can assume that things progressed nicely as these perfect beings explored their surroundings together and Adam taught his new wife about the ways of Jehovah. They were naked the whole time without a single lustful thought.

It was not until after they sinned that those lustful thoughts entered their minds. In fact, their first realisation after eating the forbidden fruit was that they were naked and as a response to this they covered their reproductive parts. Shame had enters their thoughts for the first time. God ended up making garments of animal skins for them.

Did this mean that Adam and his wife would not have engaged in sexual relations in the garden of Eden? It would hardly make sense for God to tell them to have children and them make the act of conception into something shameful...would it? So I believe that this is saying that conception would have taken place naturally, though not as frequently as lust may have demanded in their imperfect state. Sexual sin formed a large part of God's law to Israel and it still is the most common form of sin in the world today, being out of all proportion to other equally important sins, like murder, thievery and the worship of false gods.
The penalty for serious sexual sin was death. That is how God viewed it.

Even though Adam may have preceded Eve by a significant amount of time, they as a couple had ample time while still in the Garden to have children if they were able. Except that the Bible does not mention children until after they left the Garden. Therefore, we cannot make the assumption that they did have children while in the Garden.
I am not sure that they did have ample time to have children in the garden of Eden, considering the factors just mentioned. But had they conceived children whilst still perfect, then those conceived after the fall would have been at a distinct disadvantage. (Rom 5:12) Christ was sent to rescue Adam's children who were all born sinful, thanks to the imperfection they inherited from their parents.
Christ' sacrifice was a ransom...the price paid to free someone held captive. God's law was "eye for eye, tooth for tooth, life for life". Adam and Eve paid for the lives they forfeited due to disobedience, but no one could pay the price of a perfect life for their children...hence why Jesus had to come from heaven to be born as a perfect human. His perfect life cancels out the perfect life that Adam lost for them. Only then could they have a chance at life everlasting.

The Book of Mormon story makes sense to me even if it does not to you, so it is on that issue that we will have to part company.

The BoM is not relevant to anyone but those of your faith, so it doesn't factor into my beliefs at all. I doubt it would in yours if you had not been raised to believe it was scripture....but that is for another thread.
We understand what it's like to be "different" to everyone else.

I'll leave you with this last though in order to answer your last question... It was noble because we would not be here if it had not been for Adam and Eve's sacrifice.
I cannot see how that makes any sense. What sacrifice? The only thing they sacrificed was their children's future as well as their own. How did it serve any noble purpose? Adam and his wife would have been "fruitful and multiplied" without their disobedience. No sentence of death would have been imposed on them or their children and the reason for Christ's sacrifice would have been eliminated...he would never have come into the world as a human child. Their obedience would have saved themselves.

Before coming here, we were all God's spirit children... spirits... we had never experienced physical bodies. But LDS doctrine tells me that we desired to have them. God wanted for us to progress and have what we desired, but we had to do it His way. we had to go through mortality to learn to subject our bodies to our spirits rather than the other way around. Mortality is a trial to see if we will subject our bodies to the will of God or whether we will become subject to Satan through the temptation of carnal desires wherein the body rules the spirit.
This belief, you understand, is a complete departure from scripture...it is, as you said LDS doctrine, not supported in God's word at all. There is nothing in the Bible to suggest that humans existed as spirits before their birth. Why would God send perfect spirits into the world to experience life in the sinful flesh with all its heartbreak and trauma? The rebel angels of Noah's time are the only spirits who wanted to taste the desires of the flesh. God punished them and exterminated their freakish offspring. So how does that factor in for you guys?

If we repent of our mistakes and thenceforth keep the commandments of God, then the Atonement of Jesus Christ is the means of obtaining forgiveness; allowing us to return home to our Heavenly Parents. If we do not repent, then we will not see the face of our Heavenly Father again with pleasure.

I fail to see why any of that was necessary in the first place. Why do humans have to repent of sins that were going to be committed inevitably? Why send humans to earth only to sin and repent? What purpose does this serve?
What "heavenly parents" are we talking about here?

Do you believe that angels were once humans who returned to heaven? What place do they have in your belief system if I may ask?
 
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Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Simple answer... LDS folks believe in revelation apart from the Bible. We think we can preach that because of freedom of speech and freedom of religion. That you do not accept it is fine. I have no problem with your choice not to believe what I testify to. I am a firm believer in freedom of conscience.

That's great but don't preach it as if it is in the Bible.

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ether-ore

Active Member
That's great but don't preach it as if it is in the Bible.

*
Well, you see, I do believe it is in the Bible; we just have different interpretations concerning what the Bible says. I'm not going to waste time in a discussion over who's interpretation is correct. You are happy with your understanding and I with mine. So I will, to others who may be interested, "preach" whatever I please. Or do you not agree that everyone has the right to make up their own mind? Or on the contrary, do you think you are the sole authority on what is truth and have the right to censor others and additionally, have the right to tell others what they can hear? I would call such arrogation of authority, tyranny.
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Well, you see, I do believe it is in the Bible; we just have different interpretations concerning what the Bible says. I'm not going to waste time in a discussion over who's interpretation is correct. You are happy with your understanding and I with mine. So I will, to others who may be interested, "preach" whatever I please. Or do you not agree that everyone has the right to make up their own mind? Or on the contrary, do you think you are the sole authority on what is truth and have the right to censor others and additionally, have the right to tell others what they can hear? I would call such arrogation of authority, tyranny.

You can't just make stuff up out of the blue!

Post the sections you think show pre-earth spirits that become humans, - and the Heavenly parents parts.

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ether-ore

Active Member
To: JayJayDee

I see a lot of what you have said is assumption and interpretation which I respectfully disagree with, and for me to explain my position any further, would be redundant. But, I will cite a couple of examples. You say " It was not until after they sinned that those lustful thoughts entered their minds. Lust between a husband and wife is not a sin. I don't think this was at issue in any case since as I stated their bodies were not yet capable of having children. I interpret that to mean that they were likely in a prepubescent state and simply had no interest in sex. I also think they would have remained this way as long as they did not partake of the fruit of the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. I don't think Adam and Eve completely understood the command to multiply and replenish the earth at the first. I think it slowly dawned on Mother Eve first and she (with motherly instincts) what to have children. I personally think this was her reason for partaking of the fruit. Adam, recognizing the disparity between himself and his wife chose to partake as well because it finally came to him that this was necessary so that they could have children. Now, of course, I believe what I just said on combining what it says in both the Bible and the Book of Mormon as well as the Doctrine and Covenants and the Pearl of Great Price.

"Sexual sin formed a large part of God's law to Israel... and ... The penalty for serious sexual sin was death." My response to this is that I agree, but that it has nothing to do with Adam and Eve. They could not commit sexual sin in any case. God joined them together. You cannot get any more married than that. So sexual sin is not an issue here. And yes, sexual sin did have the death penalty in the theocracy that Israel was under at the time, and yes, adultery is second only to murder within the graded list of sins. However, as Jesus indicated concerning the woman taken in adultery and was about to be stoned, gave her the opportunity to repent by preventing the stoning. So, I take that to mean that the sin of adultery can be repented of as a consequence of Christ's atonement, and unless it is, the penalty is spiritual death; meaning, that individual cannot return to God after the resurrection (unless that individual repents).

In the context of my belief, Adam was faced with a choice. He understood that by partaking of the forbidden fruit he was going to did. On the other hand, he was commanded to multiply and replenish the earth. He could not do the later unless he remained with his wife. Adam's sacrifice consists in his knowingly choosing death so that we could be born. You say "There is nothing in the Bible to suggest that humans existed as spirits before their birth." Again, here I respectfully disagree. Consider what God told Jeremiah. "Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee;..." Now you may have a different interpretation of this, but I see this as an indication that Jeremiah existed before he was born in the flesh. We all existed as God's children before being born into the mortality.

"Adam and his wife would have been "fruitful and multiplied" without their disobedience." I see this as an assumption on your part. At least it is an interpretation that I do not share.

"No sentence of death would have been imposed on them or their children and the reason for Christ's sacrifice would have been eliminated...he would never have come into the world as a human child. Their obedience would have saved themselves." These really are assumptions and for me, they go contrary to the foreknowledge of God and the mission of Jesus Christ that God the Father ordained. also, when you say that their obedience would have saved themselves, you are eliminating any concept of progression from one state to another. Saved in what state? They would not have gained the experience of mortality. I know you see mortality as something bad, and it is only bad if we do not repent and accept God's plan for our progression through the atonement of Jesus Christ. Having gone through mortality and if we repent of the mistakes that we make because of the flesh, we will have gained knowledge and experience that we could not have otherwise had. The noble purpose consists in our being born in order to have the opportunity to progress.

"Why would God send perfect spirits into the world to experience life in the sinful flesh with all its heartbreak and trauma?" To gain the experience in order to benefit our progression.

"The rebel angels of Noah's time are the only spirits who wanted to taste the desires of the flesh. God punished them and exterminated their freakish offspring. So how does that factor in for you guys?" When you say "rebel angels", I really don't see how you came to that conclusion. Adam and Eves children had made choices and had corrupted themselves to the point that God decided that they had failed the test of mortality and decided to end their trial with the flood. Only Noah and his family survived. I understand the rebellious angels to be those that followed Lucifer's rebellion and are spirits that (along with Lucifer who became Satan) never had the opportunity to have bodies because of their rebellion against God. These demon spirits without physical bodies could never have children, freakish or otherwise.

I fail to see why any of that was necessary in the first place. Why do humans have to repent of sins that were going to be committed inevitably? Why send humans to earth only to sin and repent? What purpose does this serve? Since I believe we existed as spirits before coming to earth to gain physical bodies; as spirits, we had no conception of what id was like to have physical bodies. This being the case, sin was inevitable because physical bodies have appetites that we needed to learn to control. In that process of learning, we would make mistakes. If these mistakes were contrary to God's law, they would need to be repented of. The thing is that even though repentance has taken place, the fact that the sin happened in the first place, it needed to be covered. This is what the atonement of Jesus Christ does. It covers the mistakes we make which are contrary to God's law. The purpose it serves is to allow us to gain the experience of mortality and through the atonement of Jesus Christ still be allowed to return to our Father in Heaven where no unclean thing can dwell. we are made clean through the atonement of Jesus Christ.

"What "heavenly parents" are we talking about here?" Mormons believe that we are indeed the spirit children of a Heavenly Father. We also believe that there is no father without a mother... ergo Heavenly Parents.

"Do you believe that angels were once humans who returned to heaven? What place do they have in your belief system if I may ask?"

We believe that angels are God's messengers, and that they are both un-embodied spirits (as yet) as well as resurrected beings who are sent from God to execute directives given by God. For example, we believe that the angel Moroni was a resurrected being sent to Joseph Smith to initiate the restoration of the gospel of Jesus Christ.
 

ether-ore

Active Member
You can't just make stuff up out of the blue!

Post the sections you think show pre-earth spirits that become humans, - and the Heavenly parents parts.

*

Here again you are taking the stance of an authority whom I must prove myself to. I do not recognize you as any such authority, but this once, on this one issue... as a mentioned in my response to JayJayDee, "Consider what God told Jeremiah. "Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee;..." Now you may have a different interpretation of this, but I see this as an indication that Jeremiah existed before he was born in the flesh. We all existed as God's children before being born into the mortality."

I am not making this stuff up out of the blue (as you put it). I just have access to information that you do not accept. As I said, it matters not to me if you don't accept what I say, but you are not an authority figure whose demands I must meet.
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
To: JayJayDee

I see a lot of what you have said is assumption and interpretation which I respectfully disagree with, and for me to explain my position any further, would be redundant. But, I will cite a couple of examples. You say " It was not until after they sinned that those lustful thoughts entered their minds. Lust between a husband and wife is not a sin. I don't think this was at issue in any case since as I stated their bodies were not yet capable of having children. I interpret that to mean that they were likely in a prepubescent state and simply had no interest in sex. I also think they would have remained this way as long as they did not partake of the fruit of the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. I don't think Adam and Eve completely understood the command to multiply and replenish the earth at the first. I think it slowly dawned on Mother Eve first and she (with motherly instincts) what to have children. I personally think this was her reason for partaking of the fruit. Adam, recognizing the disparity between himself and his wife chose to partake as well because it finally came to him that this was necessary so that they could have children. Now, of course, I believe what I just said on combining what it says in both the Bible and the Book of Mormon as well as the Doctrine and Covenants and the Pearl of Great Price.

"Sexual sin formed a large part of God's law to Israel... and ... The penalty for serious sexual sin was death." My response to this is that I agree, but that it has nothing to do with Adam and Eve. They could not commit sexual sin in any case. God joined them together. You cannot get any more married than that. So sexual sin is not an issue here. And yes, sexual sin did have the death penalty in the theocracy that Israel was under at the time, and yes, adultery is second only to murder within the graded list of sins. However, as Jesus indicated concerning the woman taken in adultery and was about to be stoned, gave her the opportunity to repent by preventing the stoning. So, I take that to mean that the sin of adultery can be repented of as a consequence of Christ's atonement, and unless it is, the penalty is spiritual death; meaning, that individual cannot return to God after the resurrection (unless that individual repents).

In the context of my belief, Adam was faced with a choice. He understood that by partaking of the forbidden fruit he was going to did. On the other hand, he was commanded to multiply and replenish the earth. He could not do the later unless he remained with his wife. Adam's sacrifice consists in his knowingly choosing death so that we could be born. You say "There is nothing in the Bible to suggest that humans existed as spirits before their birth." Again, here I respectfully disagree. Consider what God told Jeremiah. "Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee;..." Now you may have a different interpretation of this, but I see this as an indication that Jeremiah existed before he was born in the flesh. We all existed as God's children before being born into the mortality.

"Adam and his wife would have been "fruitful and multiplied" without their disobedience." I see this as an assumption on your part. At least it is an interpretation that I do not share.

"No sentence of death would have been imposed on them or their children and the reason for Christ's sacrifice would have been eliminated...he would never have come into the world as a human child. Their obedience would have saved themselves." These really are assumptions and for me, they go contrary to the foreknowledge of God and the mission of Jesus Christ that God the Father ordained. also, when you say that their obedience would have saved themselves, you are eliminating any concept of progression from one state to another. Saved in what state? They would not have gained the experience of mortality. I know you see mortality as something bad, and it is only bad if we do not repent and accept God's plan for our progression through the atonement of Jesus Christ. Having gone through mortality and if we repent of the mistakes that we make because of the flesh, we will have gained knowledge and experience that we could not have otherwise had. The noble purpose consists in our being born in order to have the opportunity to progress.

"Why would God send perfect spirits into the world to experience life in the sinful flesh with all its heartbreak and trauma?" To gain the experience in order to benefit our progression.

"The rebel angels of Noah's time are the only spirits who wanted to taste the desires of the flesh. God punished them and exterminated their freakish offspring. So how does that factor in for you guys?" When you say "rebel angels", I really don't see how you came to that conclusion. Adam and Eves children had made choices and had corrupted themselves to the point that God decided that they had failed the test of mortality and decided to end their trial with the flood. Only Noah and his family survived. I understand the rebellious angels to be those that followed Lucifer's rebellion and are spirits that (along with Lucifer who became Satan) never had the opportunity to have bodies because of their rebellion against God. These demon spirits without physical bodies could never have children, freakish or otherwise.

I fail to see why any of that was necessary in the first place. Why do humans have to repent of sins that were going to be committed inevitably? Why send humans to earth only to sin and repent? What purpose does this serve? Since I believe we existed as spirits before coming to earth to gain physical bodies; as spirits, we had no conception of what id was like to have physical bodies. This being the case, sin was inevitable because physical bodies have appetites that we needed to learn to control. In that process of learning, we would make mistakes. If these mistakes were contrary to God's law, they would need to be repented of. The thing is that even though repentance has taken place, the fact that the sin happened in the first place, it needed to be covered. This is what the atonement of Jesus Christ does. It covers the mistakes we make which are contrary to God's law. The purpose it serves is to allow us to gain the experience of mortality and through the atonement of Jesus Christ still be allowed to return to our Father in Heaven where no unclean thing can dwell. we are made clean through the atonement of Jesus Christ.

"What "heavenly parents" are we talking about here?" Mormons believe that we are indeed the spirit children of a Heavenly Father. We also believe that there is no father without a mother... ergo Heavenly Parents.

"Do you believe that angels were once humans who returned to heaven? What place do they have in your belief system if I may ask?"

We believe that angels are God's messengers, and that they are both un-embodied spirits (as yet) as well as resurrected beings who are sent from God to execute directives given by God. For example, we believe that the angel Moroni was a resurrected being sent to Joseph Smith to initiate the restoration of the gospel of Jesus Christ.


It does not say - or even imply - that Adam and Chav'vah were married.

They were just brought together to have sex and pop out babies.

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Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Here again you are taking the stance of an authority whom I must prove myself to. I do not recognize you as any such authority, but this once, on this one issue... as a mentioned in my response to JayJayDee, "Consider what God told Jeremiah. "Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee;..." Now you may have a different interpretation of this, but I see this as an indication that Jeremiah existed before he was born in the flesh. We all existed as God's children before being born into the mortality."

I am not making this stuff up out of the blue (as you put it). I just have access to information that you do not accept. As I said, it matters not to me if you don't accept what I say, but you are not an authority figure whose demands I must meet.

Challenging what you say is not "taking authority!" This is a debate site. When you say something - you will be asked to prove it.

As to Jer 1:5, Look it up in the Hebrew. The first words are - Not yet molded/shaped in the womb. That implies molding something that is already there, - for a purpose, - and of course, already there, is science as well.

Jer 1:5 Not Yet molded/shaped in the womb, I knew you; and before you exited the womb, I sanctified you as a prophet to the nations, ordained.

SO - not yet fully formed/shaped in the womb - I knew you - made contact - sanctifying you as a prophet before your birth.

Nowhere in the Bible does it say spirit parents, or spirit children that become humans.

Here is what it does say -

Gen 2:7 And molded YHVH Elohiym the adam/human being from the dust/clay of the ground, and blew into his nostrils the breath of life; and the adam/human being became a living soul.

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ether-ore

Active Member
It does not say - or even imply - that Adam and Chav'vah were married.

They were just brought together to have sex and pop out babies.

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What? Do you suppose that some ceremony should have been recorded in scripture or do you suppose that some priest should have performed it? Where do you think priests get their authority to perform marriages. I will tell you... from God of course because marriage is ordained of God. God certainly has His own authority to join a man and a woman together and in the case of Adam and Eve, God brought them together personally. Adam even acknowledges that he is to remain with his wife when he answers the Lord in Genesis 3:12: And the man said, "The woman whom thou gavest to be with me, she gave me of the tree, and I did eat." Your personal interpretation of this issue is different from mine and that is your business.

Further, do you think that as God gave a commandment against adultery which is defined as any sexual activity outside of marriage between a man and a woman, that He would sanction such a condition between Adam and Eve? Speaking for myself, I find your thinking much to shallow on this issue.
 

ether-ore

Active Member
Are you an atheist that asks for proof? There is no possibility that I can prove anything to anyone much less to you. This is a matter of faith and my proofs which are to myself include scripture that you do not accept. So, there is nowhere to go with this. You say this is a debate. For me it is not. If I am asked questions and I feel the individual asking I open to what I may have to say, I will do my best to explain my position. If the person asking sees some merit in what I say, then it is up to them whether to adopt it or not. So, for me this is just an exchange of ideas... the sharing of information. I don't see you as being even interested in debate... you want to argue about who is right, Since you and I both are satisfied with our own positions after having had some minimal interaction, I think it is time to part company. I don't wish to say anything to you that I know you will reject, and I have seen nothing in your thinking yet that has any merit for me. So, there ya go... bye.
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
What? Do you suppose that some ceremony should have been recorded in scripture or do you suppose that some priest should have performed it? Where do you think priests get their authority to perform marriages. I will tell you... from God of course because marriage is ordained of God. God certainly has His own authority to join a man and a woman together and in the case of Adam and Eve, God brought them together personally. Adam even acknowledges that he is to remain with his wife when he answers the Lord in Genesis 3:12: And the man said, "The woman whom thou gavest to be with me, she gave me of the tree, and I did eat." Your personal interpretation of this issue is different from mine and that is your business.

Further, do you think that as God gave a commandment against adultery which is defined as any sexual activity outside of marriage between a man and a woman, that He would sanction such a condition between Adam and Eve? Speaking for myself, I find your thinking much to shallow on this issue.

Doesn't say anything about marriage - thus no marriage.

Such laws only come in much later.

You give your opinion, - as if it were fact.

Who says Priests have authority from God to perform marriages? - In reality - they just bless - unions - which have been going on forever, - without their blessings.

It doesn't actually say -wife - anywhere in Tanakh. The word used means - woman, - because it was a transaction between men, - handing off a female from one owner to another.

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Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
Are you an atheist that asks for proof? There is no possibility that I can prove anything to anyone much less to you. This is a matter of faith and my proofs which are to myself include scripture that you do not accept. So, there is nowhere to go with this. You say this is a debate. For me it is not. If I am asked questions and I feel the individual asking I open to what I may have to say, I will do my best to explain my position. If the person asking sees some merit in what I say, then it is up to them whether to adopt it or not. So, for me this is just an exchange of ideas... the sharing of information. I don't see you as being even interested in debate... you want to argue about who is right, Since you and I both are satisfied with our own positions after having had some minimal interaction, I think it is time to part company. I don't wish to say anything to you that I know you will reject, and I have seen nothing in your thinking yet that has any merit for me. So, there ya go... bye.

Are you posting this to me?

I am Agnostic. I studied Archaeology, and took some religions courses, and I am interested in the spread of ancient people, their language, religions, Gods and Goddesses, etc.

Again - you are on a debate site. If you post something - it will be challenged by people whom think you are wrong, or mistaken.

Faith is proof of nothing. - If you use it - you should tell people it is just your faith belief.

I am well aware you are using texts that - MOST - don't accept as authentic, - and as such - you should state your source rather than let people thing you are getting your information from the Bible,

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JayJayDee

Avid JW Bible Student
Sorry for these long exchanges, but there is much to discuss.....

I see a lot of what you have said is assumption and interpretation which I respectfully disagree with, and for me to explain my position any further, would be redundant.

I appreciate that we all have beliefs that are based on some assumption. Your own are based on assumption to a great extent as well. But we each have our reasons for accepting the truthfulness of what we are taught.

But, I will cite a couple of examples. You say " It was not until after they sinned that those lustful thoughts entered their minds. Lust between a husband and wife is not a sin. I don't think this was at issue in any case since as I stated their bodies were not yet capable of having children. I interpret that to mean that they were likely in a prepubescent state and simply had no interest in sex.

This is an example of assumption...is it not? If this idea is not in the Bible, then it is unsupported for anyone who is not Mormon. It makes no sense for God to give commands to his children if they have no comprehension of what is being asked of them. Why assume that they were unable to understand a clear command? They had seen animals give birth and they had seen animals die....they understood both concepts. They had perfect intellect and reasoning ability...what makes you assume that they were child-like? They were created as full grown, intelligent adults, not children.

I also think they would have remained this way as long as they did not partake of the fruit of the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil. I don't think Adam and Eve completely understood the command to multiply and replenish the earth at the first. I think it slowly dawned on Mother Eve first and she (with motherly instincts) what to have children. I personally think this was her reason for partaking of the fruit. Adam, recognizing the disparity between himself and his wife chose to partake as well because it finally came to him that this was necessary so that they could have children.

So all these assumptions are made by someone else and taught to you as truth? You accept these teachings as gospel because....? What proof do you have that Joseph Smith was a prophet or that he was ever visited by an angel? If what he wrote is contradicted by the Bible, who do you believe?

Now, of course, I believe what I just said on combining what it says in both the Bible and the Book of Mormon as well as the Doctrine and Covenants and the Pearl of Great Price.
Another assumption is that these writings of Joseph Smith were inspired? Yes? I accept the writings of the apostles and other disciples of Jesus who had direct contact with him, but there is no mention of another gospel to come. All we need to know was written before the "weeds" of false Christianity took root. No additions were to be accepted after the apostolic period.

that it has nothing to do with Adam and Eve. They could not commit sexual sin in any case. God joined them together. You cannot get any more married than that. So sexual sin is not an issue here.

Could I ask you why these two, though married, covered their reproductive parts when there was no one else around to be exposed to their nakedness? Why did they feel shame at being naked, even with each other? And why did God make garments of animal skins for them?

And yes, sexual sin did have the death penalty in the theocracy that Israel was under at the time, and yes, adultery is second only to murder within the graded list of sins. However, as Jesus indicated concerning the woman taken in adultery and was about to be stoned, gave her the opportunity to repent by preventing the stoning. So, I take that to mean that the sin of adultery can be repented of as a consequence of Christ's atonement, and unless it is, the penalty is spiritual death; meaning, that individual cannot return to God after the resurrection (unless that individual repents).

That is one of the primary reasons why Jesus offered his life....so that sinners who repent could be forgiven. He paid the price by dying in their place. This alters nothing except to tie in the sin of Adam with the death of all his children. (Rom 5:12) How anyone can make that into a noble act is beyond me. There was no natural cause of death in the garden of Eden. The eating of the forbidden fruit was the ONLY cause of death. Can you see anything in Genesis that states otherwise?

In the context of my belief, Adam was faced with a choice. He understood that by partaking of the forbidden fruit he was going to die. On the other hand, he was commanded to multiply and replenish the earth. He could not do the later unless he remained with his wife. Adam's sacrifice consists in his knowingly choosing death so that we could be born.
That means that the words of the Creator were just a tease. Virtually what you are suggesting is that God told his children not to do something under penalty of death and then rewarded them for doing so? I can only hope you see how illogical that notion is.

You say "There is nothing in the Bible to suggest that humans existed as spirits before their birth." Again, here I respectfully disagree. Consider what God told Jeremiah. "Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee;..." Now you may have a different interpretation of this, but I see this as an indication that Jeremiah existed before he was born in the flesh. We all existed as God's children before being born into the mortality.

It is true that God specifically chose certain individuals before they were born for a special role in his purpose. Jeremiah and John the Baptist are notable examples of this. Is this saying that ALL humans come under this arrangement?
Where was Adam before God created him? Where was Eve? Search Genesis and you will find no mention of them living as spirits before they lived on earth.

"Adam and his wife would have been "fruitful and multiplied" without their disobedience." I see this as an assumption on your part. At least it is an interpretation that I do not share.

"No sentence of death would have been imposed on them or their children and the reason for Christ's sacrifice would have been eliminated...he would never have come into the world as a human child. Their obedience would have saved themselves." These really are assumptions and for me, they go contrary to the foreknowledge of God and the mission of Jesus Christ that God the Father ordained.

They are assumptions based on what the rest of the Bible says. Jesus was sent from heaven to become the "ransom" for obedient mankind. He is called the "last Adam" for the simple reason that he paid for what the first Adam did to his children. (1 Cor 15:45)

when you say that their obedience would have saved themselves, you are eliminating any concept of progression from one state to another. Saved in what state? They would not have gained the experience of mortality.

Can I ask where the teaching of this "progression" is found in the Bible. Why did humans need to "progress" from "one state to another"? The state in which God first created man was perfect. It was man himself who altered that by his disobedience. No disobedience would have meant no death...the tree of life was there in the garden to guarantee an everlasting existence in paradise conditions on earth. (Gen 3:22-24)

I know you see mortality as something bad, and it is only bad if we do not repent and accept God's plan for our progression through the atonement of Jesus Christ. Having gone through mortality and if we repent of the mistakes that we make because of the flesh, we will have gained knowledge and experience that we could not have otherwise had. The noble purpose consists in our being born in order to have the opportunity to progress.

That is a concept that is not taught in God's word. It might be one promoted in Mormonism, but it is definitely NOT supported by the Bible. "Mortality" is NOT "something bad"......it is perfectly wonderful when experienced as God intended at the start.
This is a state of being where external things are needed to sustain life. Air, food, shelter, a suitable environment that would impose no danger or hardship, and a perfectly designed body that would experience no ill health...ever.
This is what mortality meant in the garden of Eden. Everything that was necessary to not only sustain life but promote health and happiness was all there, supplied in abundance by the Creator. How could any of that be a bad thing?

"The rebel angels of Noah's time are the only spirits who wanted to taste the desires of the flesh. God punished them and exterminated their freakish offspring. So how does that factor in for you guys?"
When you say "rebel angels", I really don't see how you came to that conclusion. Adam and Eves children had made choices and had corrupted themselves to the point that God decided that they had failed the test of mortality and decided to end their trial with the flood. Only Noah and his family survived. I understand the rebellious angels to be those that followed Lucifer's rebellion and are spirits that (along with Lucifer who became Satan) never had the opportunity to have bodies because of their rebellion against God. These demon spirits without physical bodies could never have children, freakish or otherwise.

Read Genesis ch 6 and see that "sons of the true God" began to notice the daughters of men, that they were beautiful and they began taking them as wives. This is not mentioned as something that was the norm among humans (and had been since the beginning)....it was talking about something unusual.....rebellious angels materialising fleshly bodies and cohabiting with women. The Nephilim were their freakish offspring, gigantic bullies whose presence plunged mankind into ruin, necessitating the action God took to eliminate them from existence and sending their fathers back to the spirit realm where he placed them under restraint in a condition called "Tartarus". Only faithful angels are seen to materialize after this event. These were the "spirits in prison" to whom Jesus went to pronounce sentence upon them after his resurrection. (1 Pet 3:19, 20; 2 Pet 2:4-11) his 'preaching' to them was not to solicit repentance, but to reinforce the surety of their future punishment.

Since I believe we existed as spirits before coming to earth to gain physical bodies; as spirits, we had no conception of what id was like to have physical bodies. This being the case, sin was inevitable because physical bodies have appetites that we needed to learn to control. In that process of learning, we would make mistakes. If these mistakes were contrary to God's law, they would need to be repented of. The thing is that even though repentance has taken place, the fact that the sin happened in the first place, it needed to be covered. This is what the atonement of Jesus Christ does. It covers the mistakes we make which are contrary to God's law. The purpose it serves is to allow us to gain the experience of mortality and through the atonement of Jesus Christ still be allowed to return to our Father in Heaven where no unclean thing can dwell. we are made clean through the atonement of Jesus Christ.

To someone without the indoctrination of Morman beliefs, and because I find nothing like this concept this in the Bible, I am happy to leave that to you.

"What "heavenly parents" are we talking about here?" Mormons believe that we are indeed the spirit children of a Heavenly Father. We also believe that there is no father without a mother... ergo Heavenly Parents.

If we know who the Father is....who is the mother?

"Do you believe that angels were once humans who returned to heaven? What place do they have in your belief system if I may ask?"

We believe that angels are God's messengers, and that they are both un-embodied spirits (as yet) as well as resurrected beings who are sent from God to execute directives given by God. For example, we believe that the angel Moroni was a resurrected being sent to Joseph Smith to initiate the restoration of the gospel of Jesus Christ.

It is a fact that there are only two angels mentioned by name in the Bible. That is Gabriel and Michael. In all of Biblical history, not one other angel has been permitted to reveal his name. (Judges 13:15-18)
Why do you think that God chose another angel in this instance, whose name is revealed only in the BoM?

Can you give Biblical support for your belief that angels are the spirits of resurrected humans?
How much of Mormon belief is supported by the Bible and how much is only found in the BoM? If what is found in the BoM conflicts with the Bible, which will you yield to?
 

Kolibri

Well-Known Member
Doesn't say anything about marriage - thus no marriage.

Such laws only come in much later.

You give your opinion, - as if it were fact.

Who says Priests have authority from God to perform marriages? - In reality - they just bless - unions - which have been going on forever, - without their blessings.

It doesn't actually say -wife - anywhere in Tanakh. The word used means - woman, - because it was a transaction between men, - handing off a female from one owner to another.

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"That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he will stick to (or "remain with.") his wife, and they will become one flesh. And both of them continued to be naked, the man and his wife; yet they were not ashamed."
- Genesis 2:24,25
 

Ingledsva

HEATHEN ALASKAN
"That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he will stick to (or "remain with.") his wife, and they will become one flesh. And both of them continued to be naked, the man and his wife; yet they were not ashamed."
- Genesis 2:24,25

What is your point here?

The word translated as - wife - is actually - woman. No wife - no marriage.

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