If Jesus was God, explain this verse...

[Call_of_the_Wild]

The Bible states at James 1:13; "When under trial, let no one say: “I am being tried by God.” For with evil things God cannot be tried nor does he himself try anyone." Jesus wasn't God.

This is a misunderstanding of the scripture. In the NIV, it states "....let no one say:I am being TEMPTED by God...for God cannot be tempted by evil". You can't be tempted by something if you lack the desire to do it. So no, God cannot be tempted.

In Matt 4:1, did Jesus have the desire to do what Satan wanted him to do? Obviously not.

 

[Shermana]

Ken Brown:

First, I would like to let you know that I oppose the doctrine of the Trinity and believe it to be a false doctrine as many doctrines are within traditional christianity.

So you're a Modalist?

Concerning your link on Phil 2, the bottom line statement they make is this:

As I said, I am in full agreement with this statement, but this statement does not agree with what Paul was saying. Paul stated that Yeshua did not need to grasp at equality with "God," and it is a wrong assumption on their part to assume that Paul meant The Father. They are in error.

I'm not sure I understand your objection.

Then, my "abysmally ignorant interpretations" which you look upon as lacking any credibility, let me expound a little to you about Isa 30:26.

Isa 30:26
(26) The light of the moon will be as the light of the sun, and the light of the sun will be seven times brighter, like the light of seven days, on the day Yahweh binds up the fracture of His people and heals the bruise He has inflicted.

Please consider that the Moon is a shadow or picture of Elohim's people. In considering this, you must first consider that our physical sun is a picture or shadow of Elohim. Our physical sun is what gives life to this world through the process of

photosynthesis, and also does give warmth to this planet. Elohim, in giving life to all, does so by sending His Light (Messiah Yeshua) to this dark world, and those who receive His Light, can then reflect it back to this world as does the Moon to the earth. When you consider Isa 30:26, the Moon (Elohim's People) will be as bright as He is (Phil 3:21, 1 Cor 15:49, Rom 8:29, 2 Cor 3:18, 1 John 3:2), and He will become 7 times brighter as He receives into Himself the Righteous Ones from the 7000 years (7 days) (Hag 2:7, John 17:22). Is that hard for you to comprehend?

It's hard for me to comprehend how you can possibly derive this as if it's matter of fact, do you have any links that agree with you or are you the first to come up with this interpretation?

Shermana, our difference is in how we view Yeshua. As I have stated, Trintiarians are deceived and truly know nothing. Yeshua is the Head or Supreme Diety of the Godhead (Col 2:9),

The word "Godhead" is a Qualitative noun that means "godhood" as in "The characteristic or state of godliness or being a god". A commonly misunderstood verse, and word.

but He did not attain to this status while He was dwelling in the flesh, but it was after His suffering and resurrection that He became the RESTORED Yahweh Elohim.

Except that the Father was still a separate entity altogether who had a separate mind even after the Ressurection. Nowhere does the text indicate your argument.

Needless to say, Yeshua was THE Yahweh of the OT, and He emptied Himself of His Diety,

Needless to say, you are wrong.

and became a man, so that He would show us The Way. I am a carpenter, and in my career of carpentry there has been times when I had to give up being the foreman or leader, and humbled myself to just carrying lumber to show those under me that they should become as me in working hard and doing their work. This is all Yahweh did, and He did this to show us how to succeed in overcoming sin and death.

It must be nice to be able to interpret the text any way you want.

Now, Yahweh, in planning this, spoke about Himself in this Scripture:

Jer 23:5-6

(5) "Behold, the days are coming," declares Yahweh, "When I will raise up for David a righteous Branch; And He will reign as king and act wisely And do justice and righteousness in the land.
(6) "In His days Judah will be saved, And Israel will dwell securely; And this is His name by which He will be called, 'Yahweh our righteousness.'

First off, the name is YHWH IS Our righteousness. The word "is" is definitely implied. The notion that the name "YHWH Our righteousness" means "This person is YHWH Himself" indicates a severe ignorance of how Hebrew names work. This is a controversial issue, but it's clearly not what you want to think it is. If you disagree, consider Jeremiah 33:16

"In those days Judah will be saved and Jerusalem will live in safety. This is the name by which it will be called: The LORD Our Righteousness (Yahweh tsidkenû).' "

As you can see, Jeremiah 33:16 blows your interpretation out of the water. The city of Jerusalem is now YHWH himself by your illogic.

Yahweh KNEW He would be the One who would fulfill this Prophecy, as He humbled Himself and became a man. As He was a man, He was ONLY a man, and NOT Elohim in the flesh. But when His plan worked, and He was RAISED back to LIFE, He became the RESTORED Yahweh Elohim, and the Disciples KNEW this, and this is why Thomas states the following:

YHWH knew how to speak basic Hebrew unlike Trinitarians and Modalists.

Joh 20:28
(28) Thomas answered and said to Him, "My Yahweh and my Elohim!"

Also hilarious is when Trinitarians and Modalists think the word "Lord" in the text always means LORD. It doesn't. Also, as I've addressed numerous times, there's some issues with John 20:28. First off, notice that the ending of John clashes with the ending of Matthew and Luke. (Where does Jesus first meet the Apostles, in Jerusalem or Galilee? Is Thomas not present to receive the Holy Breath?) A few people have noticed this and have pointed out the ending of John may have seen some additions, such as the "epilogue" of chapter 21.

Second, "My Lord and my God" has been recognized as a "Statement of exclamation towards God" and not Jesus, like "OMG" since even the 4th century by Trinitarians thesmelves.

And then you have the Disciples WORSHIPING Yeshua:

Luk 24:52[/COLO

Sigh, not the worship issue again.

You also have the Israelites worshiping King Saul, King David, and Angels.

R]
(52) And they worshiped Him, and returned to Jerusalem with great joy:

No different than when King Saul and Angels were worshiped.

Isn't that strictly forbidding in the Torah to WORSHIP no one else BUT Elohim:

Well we either have some blatant contradictions like when Abraham worshiped the Angels, or when Moses worshiped his Father in Law, or you have a blatant misunderstanding of the text.

Exo 34:14
(14) For thou shalt worship no other god: for Yahweh, whose name is Jealous, is a jealous Elohim:

I guess the text is in blatant contradiction according to your interpretation. You'd think Moses and Joshua would have known not to worship the Elohim they encountered.

After Yeshua's resurrection AS the RESTORED Yahweh Elohim,

Who apparently was still a separate entity from the Father for some reason, yet you reject the Trinity as well.

He was WORSHIPED, and that is why His Disciples were not in error by worshiping Him. Please Shermana, look at this evidence and do not doubt. KB

Please look at the evidence of the text and the counter-arguments and do not doubt. As sure as God lives, Jesus was not YHWH in the flesh, the text does not indicate this and this was not the historical case, may my bones be crushed painfully if I lie, so help me God. (And I've said that countless times for years).

 

[Ken Brown]

Hi Shermana, what we are discussing is not an easy topic, but can be reasonably addressed correctly if one has the Spirit of Elohim.

Yahweh Elohim is NOT Elohim the Father. That is a misconception. It would be like saying that the light of our sun IS the sun. The light of our sun is the preeminent feature of our sun, and is PART of the sun, but the sun is greater than the light. In the same way, Yeshua/Yahweh IS the Light which ELohim the Father sent to this world, and the Father (The Unity of all the Elohim) is greater than Yeshua/Yahweh Himself.

Now, light was created by the Elohim (Gen 1:3), but it was not until the 4th day that the light of the sun was sent to this world (Gen 1:14-19), and considering that a day is as a thousand years to Elohim (2 Pet 3:8), the 4th day in THE creation of the Spiritual, would be from 3000-4000 B.C. Didn't Yahweh/Yeshua come during the 4th day? Elohim is creating The Spiritual Man, the Restored Unity of the Father, which is the All in All, and Yahweh/Yeshua is the Head of this Restored Unity. This belief is not Modalism, or Trinitarianism, or any other "ism," but it is a true belief.

Yahweh's name means "I am what I am, or will be what I will be," so how Yeshua/Yahweh exists, is what He is. If Yeshua/Yahweh comes and dwells or exists in YOU, then you also can be called by the Name of Yahweh, thus Jeremiah 33:16 allows for us to be called by His Name. And doesn't Deu 28:10, Isa 43:7, Isa 62:2, Dan 9:18-19, and Amo 9:12 all say the same thing? Please consider that the place where Elohim choose to place His Name was here:

1Ki 8:29
(29) That thine eyes may be open toward this house night and day, even toward the place of which thou hast said, My name shall be there: that thou mayest hearken unto the prayer which thy servant shall make toward this place.

1Ki 8:43
(43) Hear thou in heaven thy dwelling place, and do according to all that the stranger calleth to thee for: that all people of the earth may know thy name, to fear thee, as do thy people Israel; and that they may know that this house, which I have builded, is called by thy name.

Neh 1:9
(9) But if ye turn unto me, and keep my commandments, and do them; though there were of you cast out unto the uttermost part of the heaven, yet will I gather them from thence, and will bring them unto the place that I have chosen to set my name there.

The dwelling place where the Name is placed is "The House of Elohim," THE TEMPLE or BODY of Messiah. This is where Yeshua/Yahweh has decided to EXIST and BE, and this is why He, as the BRANCH is building the Temple to place His Name in:

Zec 6:12
(12) And speak unto him, saying, Thus speaketh Yahweh of hosts, saying, Behold the man whose name is The BRANCH; and he shall grow up out of his place, and he shall build the temple of Yahweh:

Those who obey Him will be given an everlasting Name:

Isa 56:5
(5) Even unto them will I give in mine house and within my walls a place and a name better than of sons and of daughters: I will give them an everlasting name, that shall not be cut off.

As is spoken of here:

Rev 3:12-13
(12) Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my Elohim, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my Elohim, and the name of the city of my Elohim, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my Elohim: and I will write upon him my new name.
(13) He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.

So you see Shermana, the Wife/Bride of Yeshua/Yahweh will be given His Name just like when a wife takes the name of her husband and chooses to be called by it. So don't let Jer 33 disturb you. KB

 

[kjw47]

Hi Shermana, what we are discussing is not an easy topic, but can be reasonably addressed correctly if one has the Spirit of Elohim.

Yahweh Elohim is NOT Elohim the Father. That is a misconception. It would be like saying that the light of our sun IS the sun. The light of our sun is the preeminent feature of our sun, and is PART of the sun, but the sun is greater than the light. In the same way, Yeshua/Yahweh IS the Light which ELohim the Father sent to this world, and the Father (The Unity of all the Elohim) is greater than Yeshua/Yahweh Himself.

Now, light was created by the Elohim (Gen 1:3), but it was not until the 4th day that the light of the sun was sent to this world (Gen 1:14-19), and considering that a day is as a thousand years to Elohim (2 Pet 3:8), the 4th day in THE creation of the Spiritual, would be from 3000-4000 B.C. Didn't Yahweh/Yeshua come during the 4th day? Elohim is creating The Spiritual Man, the Restored Unity of the Father, which is the All in All, and Yahweh/Yeshua is the Head of this Restored Unity. This belief is not Modalism, or Trinitarianism, or any other "ism," but it is a true belief.

Yahweh's name means "I am what I am, or will be what I will be," so how Yeshua/Yahweh exists, is what He is. If Yeshua/Yahweh comes and dwells or exists in YOU, then you also can be called by the Name of Yahweh, thus Jeremiah 33:16 allows for us to be called by His Name. And doesn't Deu 28:10, Isa 43:7, Isa 62:2, Dan 9:18-19, and Amo 9:12 all say the same thing? Please consider that the place where Elohim choose to place His Name was here:

1Ki 8:29
(29) That thine eyes may be open toward this house night and day, even toward the place of which thou hast said, My name shall be there: that thou mayest hearken unto the prayer which thy servant shall make toward this place.

1Ki 8:43
(43) Hear thou in heaven thy dwelling place, and do according to all that the stranger calleth to thee for: that all people of the earth may know thy name, to fear thee, as do thy people Israel; and that they may know that this house, which I have builded, is called by thy name.

Neh 1:9
(9) But if ye turn unto me, and keep my commandments, and do them; though there were of you cast out unto the uttermost part of the heaven, yet will I gather them from thence, and will bring them unto the place that I have chosen to set my name there.

The dwelling place where the Name is placed is "The House of Elohim," THE TEMPLE or BODY of Messiah. This is where Yeshua/Yahweh has decided to EXIST and BE, and this is why He, as the BRANCH is building the Temple to place His Name in:

Zec 6:12
(12) And speak unto him, saying, Thus speaketh Yahweh of hosts, saying, Behold the man whose name is The BRANCH; and he shall grow up out of his place, and he shall build the temple of Yahweh:

Those who obey Him will be given an everlasting Name:

Isa 56:5
(5) Even unto them will I give in mine house and within my walls a place and a name better than of sons and of daughters: I will give them an everlasting name, that shall not be cut off.

As is spoken of here:

Rev 3:12-13
(12) Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my Elohim, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my Elohim, and the name of the city of my Elohim, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my Elohim: and I will write upon him my new name.
(13) He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.

So you see Shermana, the Wife/Bride of Yeshua/Yahweh will be given His Name just like when a wife takes the name of her husband and chooses to be called by it. So don't let Jer 33 disturb you. KB

rev 3:12--- Elohim may appear in Jewish translations but in greek translations--God( Theos) is the correct usage-- greek to English= God--a title--elohim = a title. not a name. YHWH(Jehovah) is Gods personal name. Jesus is not YHWH(Jehovah). At rev 3:12--Jesus was stressing 4 times in a single paragraph --that he Jesus has a God= his Father=YHWH(Jehovah)-John 20:17--- but that takes believing Jesus' truths over mens dogma. God does not have a God.

 

[Ken Brown]

rev 3:12--- Elohim may appear in Jewish translations but in greek translations--God( Theos) is the correct usage-- greek to English= God--a title--elohim = a title. not a name. YHWH(Jehovah) is Gods personal name. Jesus is not YHWH(Jehovah). At rev 3:12--Jesus was stressing 4 times in a single paragraph --that he Jesus has a God= his Father=YHWH(Jehovah)-John 20:17--- but that takes believing Jesus' truths over mens dogma. God does not have a God.

Hi kjw47, to be sure, Elohim is a title, and why would you find fault in using that title for HIm?

Where does it say that YHWH is the Father? KB

 

[Shermana]

Yahweh Elohim is NOT Elohim the Father.

You lost me right there. Do you have any link backing this view that YHWH was not the being called "the Father" or can you admit this is completely your own idea?

Man, these Trinitarian arguments get weirder and weirder.

 

[kjw47]

Hi kjw47, to be sure, Elohim is a title, and why would you find fault in using that title for HIm?

Where does it say that YHWH is the Father? KB

In the ot( Hebrew scriptures) elohim was used-- but in the greek scriptures-Theos was used. Jesus even though didn't mention the name YHWH(Jehovah) was definitely speaking of that name in the Lords prayer and in John 17. John 20:17 is the name Jesus was talking about.

 

[Ken Brown]

You lost me right there. Do you have any link backing this view that YHWH was not the being called "the Father" or can you admit this is completely your own idea?

Man, these Trinitarian arguments get weirder and weirder.

Hi Shermana, as I have told you, YHWH/Yahweh/Yeshua is not the Father, even though when you have seen YHWH/Yahweh/Yeshua, you have seen the Father. The Father is the collective unity of ALL of the Elohim, and IN YHWH/Yahweh/Yeshua, are the Elohim united as He is in the Bosom of the Father and is the One who is Supreme or the Head of this Unity. In this Unity, even those who are called and chosen to become One with the Father as Yeshua/Yahweh is One with the Father, are also destined to be revealed as He is.

Joh 14:20
(20) At that day ye shall know that I am in my Father, and ye in me, and I in you.

Joh 17:11
(11) And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast given me, that they may be one, as we are.

Joh 17:22
(22) And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:

And we are to share in the Divine Nature, and as He is, we will be also:

Rom 8:29-30
(29) For those whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, so that He would be the firstborn among many brethren;
(30) and these whom He predestined, He also called; and these whom He called, He also justified; and these whom He justified, He also glorified.

2Pe 1:4
(4) Whereby are given unto us exceeding great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature, having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.

2Co 3:18
(18) But we all, with open face beholding as in a glass the glory of the Lord, are changed into the same image from glory to glory, even as by the Spirit of the Lord.

1Jn 3:2
(2) Beloved, now we are children of Elohim, and it has not appeared as yet what we will be. We know that when He appears, we will be like Him, because we will see Him just as He is.

Php 3:21
(21) who will transform the body of our humble state into conformity with the body of His glory, by the exertion of the power that He has even to subject all things to Himself.

Now, concerning Yeshua being Yahweh, have you not considered John the Baptist's testimony about himself?

Joh 1:23
(23) He said, "I am A VOICE OF ONE CRYING IN THE WILDERNESS, 'MAKE STRAIGHT THE WAY OF YAHWEH,' as Isaiah the prophet said."

Isa 40:3
(3) The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of Yahweh, make straight in the desert a highway for our El.

Yeshua was Yahweh, and He emptied Himself of His Diety and became a man (Phil 2), and John prepared His way.

Yet, Yeshua/Yahweh is NOT the Father, even though He is One with the Father and part of the Father. This teaching is not from any link, and only those who are coming out of Babylon/Confusion know about it. KB

 

[Ken Brown]

In the ot( Hebrew scriptures) elohim was used-- but in the greek scriptures-Theos was used. Jesus even though didn't mention the name YHWH(Jehovah) was definitely speaking of that name in the Lords prayer and in John 17. John 20:17 is the name Jesus was talking about.

Hi kjw47, I'm sorry, but those Scriptures do not state that YHWH is or was the Father. KB

 

[Shermana]

Well that's an interesting belief I guess, but I think you're on your own with that one, I think you're simply misreading what is otherwise meant by "being one", the Father is a very specific being, the "god of the gods", not a collective intelligence of the oneness of all the Elohim. That's more along the lines of Monistic Hinduism, which there's nothing wrong with holding that belief I guess, but there's a reason few if any before you have come to this interpretation of the text.

 

[Ken Brown]

Well that's an interesting belief I guess, but I think you're on your own with that one, I think you're simply misreading what is otherwise meant by "being one", the Father is a very specific being, the "god of the gods", not a collective intelligence of the oneness of all the Elohim. That's more along the lines of Monistic Hinduism, which there's nothing wrong with holding that belief I guess, but there's a reason few if any before you have come to this interpretation of the text.

Hi Shermana, here is a post to a Muslim I recently made on a different forum that may give a little insight to what we are speaking about:

Hi eninn, yes, I said that the Red Heifer was mentioned concerning the man being raised from the dead, but the Heifer was not "yellow" it was Red. My point is that the ritual of the Red Heifer was commanded for the removal of sin and the defilement of death, and your beliefs know nothing about this. Yeshua fulfilled the role of the Red Heifer, as He was "burnt without the camp," and His Ashes (dead body) had LIVING WATER (Eternal Life) added to Him as He was in the Vessel of the Tomb. Thus He was resurrected to Eternal Life ON the Third Day as He predicted.

Concerning Yeshua being "God" in the flesh. That is a false teaching. He was ONLY a man, who emptied Himself of His Diety (Phil 2), and by fulfilling His role in the predetermined plan of Elohim, He became the Restored Diety that He was before He became a man. That was His mission and purpose as He defeated the one who had the power of sin and death, the Devil, by allowing the Devil to slay Him though the hands of all sinners. This event, the murder and sacrifice of Yeshua, is the Power of Elohim in turning sinners from their sin and cleansing them from the defilement of death, and the Devil knows he is defeated by the outstretched arms of the Messiah, as He is delivering us OUT of Egypt/Sin:

Deu 26:8
(8) and Yahweh brought us out of Egypt with a mighty hand and an outstretched arm and with great terror and with signs and wonders;

I don't believe that Muhammad can make that claim. ABeginner

Are you familiar at all with the ritual of the Red Heifer? KB

 

[kjw47]

Hi kjw47, I'm sorry, but those Scriptures do not state that YHWH is or was the Father. KB

Does 2 + 2 = 4----- there are two major players on the scene throughout Gods written word--The Father and the son-- one is YHWH(Jehovah) one is Yeshouah(Jesus)--so when Jesus speaks of another name who is his Father and his God 2+2= YHWH(Jehovah) --Jehovah is Jesus' God and Father.

 

[allright]

Jesus said "wherever two or more are gathered in my name, I am in the mist of them"

How can he be present in thousands, yes millions of places at the same time if hes not God.

 

[Shermana]

Jesus said "wherever two or more are gathered in my name, I am in the mist of them"

How can he be present in thousands, yes millions of places at the same time if hes not God.

1. I highly doubt anyone who claims to be a Christian has Jesus in the midst of them. Did this apply to the groups like the Nicolations that were condemned by the Jewish Nazarenes like in Revelation?

2. Jesus is the Incarnation of the Logos. The implications of being the "Word of God", the Firstborn Created Being, Wisdom Incarnated, the Vehicle of which all things were created, may very well imply being an overarching Spiritual entity right underneath the Father Himself.

3. It may be metaphorical.

 

[allright]

1. I highly doubt anyone who claims to be a Christian has Jesus in the midst of them. Did this apply to the groups like the Nicolations that were condemned by the Jewish Nazarenes like in Revelation?

2. Jesus is the Incarnation of the Logos. The implications of being the "Word of God", the Firstborn Created Being, Wisdom Incarnated, the Vehicle of which all things were created, may very well imply being an overarching Spiritual entity right underneath the Father Himself.

3. It may be metaphorical.

Pathetic

 

[Shermana]

Pathetic

Did it ever occur to you that you maybe should have substance to your rebuttal other than a pathetic one liner expression of disapproval? This is not your first time. This is the debate section, perhaps you're looking for the DIRs?

 

[allright]

1. I highly doubt anyone who claims to be a Christian has Jesus in the midst of them. Did this apply to the groups like the Nicolations that were condemned by the Jewish Nazarenes like in Revelation?

2. Jesus is the Incarnation of the Logos. The implications of being the "Word of God", the Firstborn Created Being, Wisdom Incarnated, the Vehicle of which all things were created, may very well imply being an overarching Spiritual entity right underneath the Father Himself.

3. It may be metaphorical.

1 So Jesus is a liar. Argue with him, he said it.

2 You accidentialy left out "and the Word was God"

3 It may be you have no real rebuttal

 

[Shermana]

1 So Jesus is a liar. Argue with him, he said it.

No you just misinterpret him, and I'm guessing you don't like the idea of analyzing what particularly he said in light of other scriptures, since you simply want a broad reading that doesn't include particulars, or analysis of the Greek itself.

2 You accidentialy left out "and the Word was God"

It says "And the word was a god". And "A god" refers to "A divine/celestial being". I'll be happy to get into that language argument over the anarthrous all over again for the 5156th time on this forum if you disagree, but I doubt you'll be interested in hearing objective grammar arguments. And trust me, I'll be more than happy to get into each and every abuse of the grammar by Trinitarians that you have to pull up, the more practice the merrier.

Or as Prominent Greek Grammarians and Trinitarians, Professors Goodspeed, Moffat, and Wallace said, "And the word was Divine", to avoid the Modalistic implication. And by "Divine", as in "A divine being".

http://simplebibletruths.net/70-John-1-1-Truths.htm

As you can see, it is far from just a "JW invention" as many unscrupulous Trintarian apologetics sites like to fool their audiences with, to hope to steer them away from the fact that this is what even some Orthodox Christians were translating it as 400 years ago, not to mention plenty of neutral (non church affiliated) Greek scholars. Jesus would much rather prefer you to acknowledge his true relationship to the Father, which is closer to the Arian explanation, or as Philo summarized in his Logos Theology, than to follow the dictates of the blasphemous "church".

3 It may be you have no real rebuttal

Speak for yourself.

 

[kjw47]

1 So Jesus is a liar. Argue with him, he said it.

2 You accidentialy left out "and the Word was God"

3 It may be you have no real rebuttal

Jesus was with them by watching over them from heaven.

In the greek written language--a or an was never written--the translator had to know where they belonged. The trinity translators left the a out of John 1:1-- making Gods word unharmonious with Jesus teachings--An a belongs at John 1:1--many translations through history saw that fact and put the a there. The trinity translations are filled with errors, they are out of harmony with Jesus' truths.

 

[Athan]

Matthew 4:1 Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil.

If Jesus was God, why was he tempted by the Devil? Can God be tempted by the Devil, his own creation?

Granted, he passed the test. But if he was God... Why was there a test in the first place? Does God need to test himself?

Are God and Jesus really one in the same? Please answer logically how this is possible given the verse above.

Jesus was tempted by His former brother, not His creation.