Desert Snake
Veteran Member
So, Stephen saw G-d, right? So, G-d isn't hidden? Doesn't it state somewhere that no one can see G-d?
thanks, disciple.
thanks, disciple.
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If Stephen saw G-d, then G-d isn't invisible/hidden?
- Thread starter Desert Snake
- Start date
State where? Oh it does not matter. You can not ask a question like this generally. It has 0 meaning and can't be answered meanglfully. The bible says, ok I don't belive in the Christian god.
Desert Snake
Veteran Member
I'm not sure what you mean. If the Bible does, actually state, that G-d cannot be seen, then how did Stephen see G-d. If the Bible does not state that G-d cannot be seen, and that is a mistranslation/interpretation, then Stephen could have seen G-d. If someone thinks that Jesu is a manifestation of G-d, then why are there two characters, or is that a mistranslation, as well.
The bible doesn't own the god concept? Or is stephen some famous Christian
Desert Snake
Veteran Member
Stephen is someone in the Bible. I agree, the Bible doesn't ''own'', the G-d concept. I would never say that the Bible 'owns' the G-d concept, btw. that is against my beliefs.
No.
Nada
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Stephen does not see God, and it never says he did.This is what it says.
Acts 7:55 But Stephen, full of the Holy Spirit, looked up to heaven and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God.
Bible Hub
So Stephen saw Jesus, but not God.So this shows that God cannot be seen by man.It also shows that Jesus is not God.
Ps.To be on the right hand of a ruler was to have the most important position, next to the ruler himself.Food for thought.
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Desert Snake
Veteran Member
Saw the Glory of G-d, means what, exactly? You would think that such a momentous vision would garner more detailed description.
Nada
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What it means is that Stephen saw Gods purpose.It never says Stephen saw God.It clearly says Stephen saw Gods glory.It clearly states Stephen saw Jesus.It also clearly states Jesus was at Gods right hand.Therefore,in conclusion,Stephen saw Gods purpose ,and Jesus at the right hand of God.Meaning,Jesus is at the right hand of his ruler and God.Gods right hand man.
Ps.Notice how it never mentions the holy spirit, or even it seen with Jesus, or God, in this vision.Food for thought.
Desert Snake
Veteran Member
So it is metaphor. That is what I would have assumed.
Nada
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Yes..... All it is saying is when Stephen saw the vision, he understood it to mean that Jesus was truly the Son of God the Almighty, and here to spread the word of God to all of mankind, by way of his followers and unity.It was all revealed to Stephen in this wonderful vision.
Nada
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There are many figures of speech in the holy scriptures.For instance,the book of Revelation.It has much symbolism and figurative language.To the common person,who really has no idea what it says, will automatically assume it is literal talk.But those who seek knowledge and do a thorough research will come to find out that these key words mean something entirely different.Like the word beast in Revelation.It refers to government.many think a literal animal will rise.Or that it refers to satan the devil.Also rivers,waters and oceans.These can mean many peoples.Just like it is explained in,
Revelation 17:1 One of the seven angels who had the seven bowls came and said to me, "Come, I will show you the punishment of the great prostitute, who sits by many waters.
Revelation 17:15 Then the angel said to me, "The waters you saw, where the prostitute sits, are peoples, multitudes, nations and languages.
So it is really symbolic language.
"God" is a principle and Steven saw Jesus standing at the right hand of the principle (God) of non resistance that Jesus demonstrated going to the cross like a lamb. Steven demonstrated the same Jesus/God principle of not resisting being stoned.
Nice dynamic colorful writing back then to make a point.
Nice dynamic colorful writing back then to make a point.
I never thought God was invisible. People in the Bible (like Samson's parents) thought they would die if they saw God (They saw the Angel of the Lord), and Moses saw God's "back parts" (whatever that means). That would mean that God is not seen by us but not invisible, either.
Nada
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The holy scriptures are loud and clear.
Colossians 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
COLOSSIANS 1:15 Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature:
Why thank you. That means what I said: That God is unseen by us.
Desert Snake
Veteran Member
When people saw Jesus, they were seeing G-d. There is no reason that G-d cannot be seen, imo.Why thank you. That means what I said: That God is unseen by us.
lovemuffin
τὸν ἄρτον τοῦ ἔρωτος
I would suggest that "visibility" is a primary metaphor for knowledge. So for example the prologue of John's gospel declares in 1:18 that "no one has ever seen God", but that Jesus, "who is in the bosom of the father, has made him known". The relation between knowledge and visibility as a metaphor is clear. And of course "clear" is also a word metaphorically related to both knowledge and vision. Our language is full of this imagery. Also note I'm intentionally avoiding any disputes about the greek text in this verse, as far as whether it refers to Jesus as the "only God", or "only begotten Son", or etc, since it's irrelevant for the point I'm trying to make.
It's not really a question about whether people can see God in a literal sense, but what it means to know God. Is it possible to completely comprehend God? There is a reason why Paul uses the word mystery frequently to refer to questions about theology, and later Christians took up those themes in detail as well. In the Beatitudes, "Blessed are the pure in heart, for they shall see God" suggests additionally the idea that a meaningful knowledge of God requires a purification and a participation in holy life, rather than just being a question of an objective knowledge, the way you might know what a tree looks like.
Edit: this relation between visibility and knowledge in John's usage is also drawn out in 1 John 4, which, pulling in also the theme of the Beatitude, touches on love:
It's not really a question about whether people can see God in a literal sense, but what it means to know God. Is it possible to completely comprehend God? There is a reason why Paul uses the word mystery frequently to refer to questions about theology, and later Christians took up those themes in detail as well. In the Beatitudes, "Blessed are the pure in heart, for they shall see God" suggests additionally the idea that a meaningful knowledge of God requires a purification and a participation in holy life, rather than just being a question of an objective knowledge, the way you might know what a tree looks like.
Edit: this relation between visibility and knowledge in John's usage is also drawn out in 1 John 4, which, pulling in also the theme of the Beatitude, touches on love:
"Beloved, let us love one another, for love is from God, and whoever loves has been born of God and knows God. Anyone who does not love does not know God, because God is love. In this the love of God was made manifest among us, that God sent his only Son into the world, so that we might live through him. In this is love, not that we have loved God but that he loved us and sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins. Beloved, if God so loved us, we also ought to love one another. No one has ever seen God; if we love one another, God abides in us and his love is perfected in us." (1 John 4:7-12)
The interjection about no one seeing God doesn't make sense in context unless you relate it to knowledge.
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Nada
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Why thank you. That means what I said: That God is unseen by us.
"I never thought God was invisible."