outhouse
Atheistically
Or as Confucius supposedly said: the more you know, the more you know you really don't know.
Cop out for refusing knowledge
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Or as Confucius supposedly said: the more you know, the more you know you really don't know.
I embrace knowledge, but I don't strut around claiming I know "the answers" when there's too good of a chance of not being correct. It's like the phrase: "To a child, a tree is simple; but to a biologist, a tree is very complex".Cop out for refusing knowledge
And this is why some people who claim certainty are just so far off base. Good post.If its really that important, here's some basic answers.
1. To teach us humility - if G-d can ask for help, so can we. (Rashi) (Or HaChaim)
2. To prevent jealousy among the angels (that Man is more special than angels even though Man is physical), G-d asked them to be a part of the process. (Rashi)
3. The Name Elohim in Judaism is associated with G-d's kingship, so the royal us is being used here. The creation of man is being attached to this Name, because it it relates to the rest of the verse: man being given dominion (like a ruler) over the creatures. (Ibn Ezra) And is used in Isa. 6:8 as well. (Rashbam)
4. As opposed to the land and the water giving forth their respective creatures, the usage here represents G-d's saying, "We of the Heavens" will bring forth man. (Ibn Ezra)
5. The "we" is going back on verse 24 where the earth gave forth animals. Now it is saying We together, the Earth and the Heavens, will create Man. (Nachmanides)
6. Because there are 13 attributes of mercy and in this case, the Name Elohim which represents the attribute of judgement also agreed. (Or HaChaim)
7. After all the animals were created, the angels started to become haughty thinking they were the best thing ever. So 'let us make man' is G-d challenging the angels to try and create Man, to show them that as lofty as they are, they're not G-d. The following verse returns to the obvious, only G-d could actually make man. (Zera Yitzchak)
There are more answers, but they start to get longer more Midrashic or more esoteric and also, I'm not about to pull out a bunch of books just to give you extra answers
when there's too good of a chance of not being correct.
I have no idea how your statement relates to what I wrote, but I'll take the misplaced complement anyway!And this is why some people who claim certainty are just so far off base. Good post.
And this is why some people who claim certainty are just so far off base. Good post.
I have no idea how your statement relates to what I wrote,
You put out a list of different commentaries relating to the OP from different sages, and my point was that there simply is no way to narrow down which is/are correct.I have no idea how your statement relates to what I wrote, but I'll take the misplaced complement anyway!
That isn't correct either, Is Ra EL worshiped EL and believed in other gods; then they were reformed to worship YHVH, after they were told he was EL.knowing Israelites were polytheist who did in fact worship a family of gods?
And imagine that I'm agnostic, if you would read what I have under my avatar, which just again confirms the fact that you continue to jump to one conclusion after another after another...That is apologetic rhetoric from someone why refuses credible history in favor of religious bias.
And imagine that he is also the same faith as you
and my point was that there simply is no way to narrow down which is/are correct.
They're all correct, why would we want to narrow it down? The more the opinions, the more we learn about the subject.You put out a list of different commentaries relating to the OP from different sages, and my point was that there simply is no way to narrow down which is/are correct.
Purely a question of information: Long ago, I had been told (and I've seen it in several other sources, none of which I believe to be authoritative...as I have several of these points you put here) that the word "Elohim" means "Powers," a plural. If so, it doesn't confuse me in the least. Thank you if you can validate it or correct me on that.If its really that important, here's some basic answers.
1. To teach us humility - if G-d can ask for help, so can we. (Rashi) (Or HaChaim)
2. To prevent jealousy among the angels (that Man is more special than angels even though Man is physical), G-d asked them to be a part of the process. (Rashi)
3. The Name Elohim in Judaism is associated with G-d's kingship, so the royal us is being used here. The creation of man is being attached to this Name, because it it relates to the rest of the verse: man being given dominion (like a ruler) over the creatures. (Ibn Ezra) And is used in Isa. 6:8 as well. (Rashbam)
4. As opposed to the land and the water giving forth their respective creatures, the usage here represents G-d's saying, "We of the Heavens" will bring forth man. (Ibn Ezra)
5. The "we" is going back on verse 24 where the earth gave forth animals. Now it is saying We together, the Earth and the Heavens, will create Man. (Nachmanides)
6. Because there are 13 attributes of mercy and in this case, the Name Elohim which represents the attribute of judgement also agreed. (Or HaChaim)
7. After all the animals were created, the angels started to become haughty thinking they were the best thing ever. So 'let us make man' is G-d challenging the angels to try and create Man, to show them that as lofty as they are, they're not G-d. The following verse returns to the obvious, only G-d could actually make man. (Zera Yitzchak)
There are more answers, but they start to get longer more Midrashic or more esoteric and also, I'm not about to pull out a bunch of books just to give you extra answers
that the word "Elohim" means
At this point, I don't care how the word evolved. I'm not debating anything, I'm looking to someone who does apparently know something about Judaism whether or not something I learned is, is not, or might or might not be a correct. If you can enlighten me on that, fine. If not, please go on with your arguing with other people.Do you understand how the definition evolved over time?
That seems to be the case. It could also be an answer, but it would beg the question why Elohim is not always written with plural conjugated verbs as it is here. So it seems, even though that's what the word means, ultimately its being used as a name, which returns us to the original question. But as a Name, its meaning has implications for its usage. So we would ask why is this Name used here as opposed to another and we could derive an answer based on the meaning of this Name vs. the others.Purely a question of information: Long ago, I had been told (and I've seen it in several other sources, none of which I believe to be authoritative...as I have several of these points you put here) that the word "Elohim" means "Powers," a plural. If so, it doesn't confuse me in the least. Thank you if you can validate it or correct me on that.
If its really that important, here's some basic answers.
1. To teach us humility - if G-d can ask for help, so can we. (Rashi) (Or HaChaim)
2. To prevent jealousy among the angels (that Man is more special than angels even though Man is physical), G-d asked them to be a part of the process. (Rashi)
3. The Name Elohim in Judaism is associated with G-d's kingship, so the royal us is being used here. The creation of man is being attached to this Name, because it it relates to the rest of the verse: man being given dominion (like a ruler) over the creatures. (Ibn Ezra) And is used in Isa. 6:8 as well. (Rashbam)
4. As opposed to the land and the water giving forth their respective creatures, the usage here represents G-d's saying, "We of the Heavens" will bring forth man. (Ibn Ezra)
5. The "we" is going back on verse 24 where the earth gave forth animals. Now it is saying We together, the Earth and the Heavens, will create Man. (Nachmanides)
6. Because there are 13 attributes of mercy and in this case, the Name Elohim which represents the attribute of judgement also agreed. (Or HaChaim)
7. After all the animals were created, the angels started to become haughty thinking they were the best thing ever. So 'let us make man' is G-d challenging the angels to try and create Man, to show them that as lofty as they are, they're not G-d. The following verse returns to the obvious, only G-d could actually make man. (Zera Yitzchak)
There are more answers, but they start to get longer more Midrashic or more esoteric and also, I'm not about to pull out a bunch of books just to give you extra answers
Thank you. I'm sure someone has done exactly as you posit. Clearly, there's lots of room for discussion, but I really just wanted further clarification.That seems to be the case. It could also be an answer, but it would beg the question why Elohim is not always written with plural conjugated verbs as it is here. So it seems, even though that's what the word means, ultimately its being used as a name, which returns us to the original question. But as a Name, its meaning has implications for its usage. So we would ask why is this Name used here as opposed to another and we could derive an answer based on the meaning of this Name vs. the others.
If you can enlighten me on that, fine