You positively asserted that objective moral facts do not exist. What was the basis of your assertion?
The idea of this thread, that I don't think anyone has ever really shown me inherently wrong actions. If there were such an animal as inherently wrong actions, I think a case could be made for objective moral facts.
Perhaps objective moral facts exist but you just lack the faculty for perceiving them.
I agree that this is possible. I'd like to see the case made for that though. Would be like saying (to an atheist) perhaps an objective religious god exists, but you just lack the faculty for perceiving that.
Yes, the sign of the statement, "The act of raping a 4-year-old child is immoral," definitely matches the sign of the world. That's why the act is a crime in every nation of the world
This is not accurate. It matches, perhaps, today's criminal code for every nation, but the world is perfectly fine allowing it to occur. World will function just as well if it happens or doesn't happen. World doesn't do anything to prevent it from happening. If you change immoral to illegal, I'd probably not have a debate.
Yeah, prove that acts of rape of children are allowed to happen, never prosecuted.
I was a child that was raped, by a person that was never prosecuted. Do you think I'm the only one, ever?
No one has even vaguely suggested that the immorality of an act prevents the act from happening.
Then (allegedly) immoral acts are not what the world is based on in how it operates. How reality operates. Reality doesn't appear to care about our made up arbitrary, ever evolving rules of conduct. While our criminal codes of justice do.
You need to familiarize yourself with logic. Only arguments (deductions) are valid. And they are valid if they follow a certain form (such as a valid syllogism, such as the AAA-1, or a
modus ponens--see:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rule_of_inference ). The premises of valid arguments must be true propositions in order to produce a conclusion that is a true proposition. That's why I asked you to quote a definition of the word "moral" in your P1.
Again, I am saying that my P1 proposition is as true as the one you provided. The argument is just as valid.
The conditions that constitute the middle term ("that harm a person, are perpetrated without that person's consent and are perpetrated merely for the perpetrator's pleasure") are in every way consistent with the definition of "immoral" that I linked to.
They are not consistent. It is an assumption on your part. It could be a shared assumption by many, even a majority, but still an assumption that is not consistent with the definition.
There is nothing in the linked definition on immoral (or moral) that alludes to: harm, consent or pleasure in that. You are assuming that to be 'proper code of ethics.' I believe from all of us who in this thread fall on side of relative morality, we'd agree with this, but stipulate that with idea that we don't know if that is in fact universal, and do have reason to believe it may not be.