I am making a blanket statement. We cannot read anything, including the Bible, without interpreting it.
Why make a blanked statement of madness? Does madness trump fact?
If such a blanket statement were true, the interpreter's words must be interpreted, and the interpreted words of the interpreter who interpreted the interpreter's words, must also be interpreted.
Get the picture?
If we appreciate however, that the Bible is it's own interpreter, in that explanations to what is said, is found elsewhere in the Bible, and what it says is indeed what it means in other places, we have the complete package... as stated at 2 Timothy 3:16, 17
16 All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, 17 so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.
You'll notice it says, All, not some.
Either these words are true, or they are false. They can't be both true and false.
Your job then, if you believe they are false, is to prove they are.
If they are true, then your beliefs, claims, and opinions are all false, when you say we need to interpret interpretations, or explanations. Madness.
The Bible explains itself. You protest, "But that can't be."
The truth is, that's the way it is.
The Bible was written by some forty men. So the words said by one person, are often explained by another. The words said by one person, are interpreted by another.
Example ...
(Nehemiah 8:5-8, 13)
5 And Ezʹra proceeded to open the book before the eyes of all the people, for he happened to be above all the people; and as he opened it all the people stood up. 6 Then Ezʹra blessed Jehovah the [true] God, the great One, at which all the people answered, “Amen! Amen!” with the lifting up of their hands. They then bowed low and prostrated themselves to Jehovah with [their] faces to the earth. 7 And Jeshʹu·a and Baʹni and She·re·biʹah, Jaʹmin, Akʹkub, Shabʹbe·thai, Ho·diʹah, Ma·a·seiʹah, Ke·liʹta, Az·a·riʹah, Joʹza·bad, Haʹnan, Pe·laʹiah, even the Levites, were explaining the law to the people, while the people were in a standing position. 8 And they continued reading aloud from the book, from the law of the [true] God, it being expounded, and there being a putting of meaning [into it] (gave the sense); and they continued giving understanding in (caused to understand) the reading.
13 And on the second day the heads of the fathers of all the people, the priests and the Levites, gathered themselves together to Ezʹra the copyist, even to gain insight into the words of the law.
Here we see the words of Moses being explained / interpreted by the Levites.
Consider another example...
(Luke 24:27)
And starting with Moses and all the Prophets, he interpreted to them things pertaining to himself in all the Scriptures.
Jesus interpreted what was written by Moses and the Prophet. So reading Jesus' words, we have the interpretation - the explanation.
To claim you now need to interpret Jesus' words, is madness, yes. Would we not then need to interpret your words? Pure madness.
Who interprets Jesus' words. Often, it was Jesus himself who explained his own words (for example Matthew 13). His followers too, later explains Jesus' words, and these were written down.
Do we need to interpret their interpretation? Madness. Isn't it.
In the case of the revelation by John, we often have the angel explaining, but not always.
So what do we do here? Who will interpret, or explain? Would that not be the Christian congregation which has the backing of God's holy spirit?
So. it is clear to me that persons are really using the interpretation argument, in an attempt to undermine the Bible's authority in
teaching, reproving, setting things straight, disciplining in righteousness, that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.