Your definition is just a restatement of mine, and I referenced that definition earlier in the thread. The definition references method (I said "the way in which beliefs are formed"), bias and attitude (I said "the way in which beliefs are held"). It is a non-sequitur to suggest that the criteria "personal beliefs do not interfere with the pursuit of truth" means that faith is dishonest, because faith does not entail in any direct logical way an interference with the pursuit of truth. That also happens to be the least concrete of the four criteria listed in the definition, and the one most amenable to hearing in many different ways. I would suggest that the 3 other points in
the wikipedia definition are an exposition of
what it means for personal beliefs to interfere in the pursuit of truth. But faith does not entail omitting or misrepresenting facts or arguments, or ignoring work, or plagiarism, or any similar concrete thing.
Also, I am not redefining terms. I have been using "belief", "knowledge", and "justification" in just the way I believe you would use them, and I've been doing so quite intentionally. I have not tried to suggest for example that the subjective evidence of personal mystical experience could count towards justification. On the other hand, when it has been suggested that the Biblical definition of faith is "belief without evidence", that is in fact no where found in the Bible, and is very much a redefinition.
No, actually, virtually none believe that the Jesus as described in the Bible was a real person.
I didn't say that they did. The term "historical Jesus" means just the idea that an actual person existed, not that the Biblical characterization is accurate in any way. You've grossly misunderstood the claim I'm making here, and you might want to review the wiki on
the historicity of Jesus, which states that "there is near unanimity among scholars that Jesus existed historically", which is not at all the same thing as saying that the description of Jesus in the Bible is accurate.