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Is Jesus God?

Forever_Catholic

Active Member
Of course Jesus is God. Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are the three persons of one God. The Trinity; the central mystery of the Christian Faith. It's beyond our capability to fully comprehend, which is to be expected because our little minds are not like the mind of God, but there is this old public-domain image that illustrates it in a simple manner:

trinity600.jpg
 

lovemuffin

τὸν ἄρτον τοῦ ἔρωτος
OneThatGotAway: Your implicit interpretation of the greek article as though when it is present it has the same usage as the english definite article, and when it is absent it is equivalent to the english indefinite article, is wrong. The fact that the article appears in front of a noun in greek does not indicate that you should translate "the" there, and it's absence does not mean you shouldn't translate with a definite article either.

So for example ὁ λόγος του θεὸυ is "the word of God", but it's not "the word of the God", because in english using "the" would denote something that is not at all intended by the greek. Or if you look at the greek text of Romans 8:33, it reads Θεὸς ὁ δικαιῶν. "[It is] God who justifies". Here there is no article on Theos, but it obviously refers to the one God, and not "a God". Here we also see the article acting as a sort of pronoun, God is the one "who" is justifying. This sort of usage, as a weak pronoun, is how the greek article originally was used.

There's a fairly good overview here: The Greek Article
 

kepha31

Active Member
They were the same people who claimed Jesus was "son of god" the context of such did not mean a literal "son of god" in Mark.
Because Mark did not provide the same details as the other Gospels does not mean Mark did not have a literal sense. It's an argument from absence.

We don't know what Jesus said with certainty. The authors wrote rhetorically and used mythology.
They wrote from memory and were very good at it. Tradition is not a dirty word.

The same way the people following the Emperor call him "son of god" first.
Again, you use a non-sequitur fallacy. Whatever "divine" term the Emperor may have been called, it was out of legislation by the Senate. Jesus was called "Son of God" by his followers by conviction, not political expediency. Big difference.

Remember this book had a different Christology then the other books written before that book. Its not the end all to the definition.
Different but not contradictory.

No, it means that is how they perceived him 400-500 years s later. "the beginning and the end"
John "perceived" Him as Alpha and Omega around 95 A.D.

"It cannot be absolutely certain that the writer meant to refer to the Lord Jesus specifically here ... There is no real incongruity in supposing, also, that the writer here meant to refer to God as such."
Is this quote about the paeleo-Christian art? As I said before, some writers of wiki have a bias, especially against anything Catholic. This is painfully obvious. Besides, it misses the point. It's not about a writing, its about a painting that reflects what the early Christians believed. The paintings in the Roman Catacombs did not come from evolved myths, and the Alpha and Omega, an expression of eternity in both directions of time, was not invented just because John wrote Revelation. Truth is objective and stands on its own merits, or it's not truth.

Israelites were polytheistic and worshipped many gods early on, so the text reflects El and Baal and Yahweh and Asherah;
Before they were monotheistic they weren't called Israelites.

Full Text of Benedict XVI's Letter to Atheist


b16-odi-650x243.jpg


Distinguished Professor Odifreddi,

First, I must apologize for the fact that I am only thanking you today for sending me your book, Caro Papa, ti scrivo, and for the kind words which you addressed to me at the time through Archbishop Gänswein....

...My opinion of your book as a whole, however, is rather mixed. I read some parts of it with enjoyment and profit. In other parts, however, I was surprised by a certain aggressiveness and rashness of argumentation.

I would like to respond chapter by chapter, but unfortunately I do not have sufficient strength for this. I shall therefore choose a few points that I think are particularly important...
I...
II...
III...
IV...
V....

...What you say about the person of Jesus is not worthy of your scientific standing. If you are posing the question as if, in the end you knew nothing about Jesus and as though nothing were ascertainable about Him as a historic figure, then I could only firmly invite you to become a little more competent from an historical point of view. For this, I recommend especially the four volumes which Martin Hengel (an exegete of the Protestant Theological Faculty of Tübingen) published together with Maria Schwemer: it is an excellent example of historical precision and of the broadest historical knowledge. Compared with this, what you say about Jesus is rash talk that should not be repeated.

It is an incontestable fact that many things of little seriousness have been written within the field of exegesis. The American seminar on Jesus you cite on pages 105 and following only confirms again what Albert Schweitzer had noted about the “Leben-Jesu-Forschung” (Research on the life of Jesus), i.e. that the so-called “historical Jesus” is for the most part a reflection of the authors’ ideas. These botched forms of historical work, however, do not compromise at all the importance of serious historical research, which has brought us true and certain knowledge about the proclamation [of the Gospel] and the figure of Jesus.

On page 104 you go so far as to ask the question if Jesus was perhaps even one of the many charlatans who seduced innocent people with spells and tricks. And even if this is only expressed in the form of a question and, thank God, does not appear as a thesis, respect for what others hold as a sacred reality should restrain you from such insults (cf. the expression “silly charlatanism” on page 104).

I must also forcefully reject your assertion (p. 126) that I have portrayed historical-critical exegesis as an instrument of the Antichrist. Treating the account of Jesus’ temptations, I have only taken up Soloviev’s thesis that historical-critical exegesis can also be used by the antichrist — which is an incontestable fact. At the same time, however — and especially in the preface to the first volume of my book on Jesus of Nazareth — I have always explained clearly that historical-critical exegesis is necessary for a faith that does not propose myths with historical images, but that it demands genuine historicity and therefore must present the historical reality of its claims in a scientific manner. For this reason, neither is it correct for you to tell me that I would be interested only in meta-history: On the contrary, all my efforts are aimed at showing that the Jesus described in the Gospels is also the real historical Jesus, that it is history which actually occurred.

At this point, I would also like to note that your exposition of the crede ut intellegas does not agree with the Augustinian mode of thinking which guides me: for Augustine crede ut intellegas and intellege ut credas, in their own specific ways, are inseparably joined. In this regard, I would refer you to the article crede ut intellegas by Eugene TeSelle in the “Augustinus-Lexikon" (ed. C. Mayer, vol. 2 Basel from 1996 to 2002, coll. 116-119).

Allow me then to observe that, regarding the scientific nature of theology and its sources, you should move more cautiously when it comes to historical statements. I shall mention just one example. On page 109, you tell us that the changing of water into wine at the Wedding at Cana in John’s Gospel corresponds to the account of the changing of the Nile into blood (Exodus 7:17ff). This, of course, is nonsense. The transformation of the Nile into blood was a scourge that, for some time, took the vital resource of water from men in order to soften Pharaoh’s heart. The changing of water into wine at Cana, however, is the gift of nuptial joy which God offers in abundance to men. It is a reference to the changing of the water of the Torah into the exquisite wine of the Gospel. In John’s Gospel, yes, the typology of Moses is present, but not in this passage.

VI.

In Chapter 19 of your book, we return to the positive aspects of your dialogue with my book. First, however, allow me to correct another small mistake on your part. In my book I did not base myself on the Nicene-Constantinopolitan Creed, the text of which, to your praise, you communicate to the reader, but rather on the “Apostle’s Creed” as it is called. Its core is founded on the City of Rome’s profession of faith and then, beginning from the third century, it increasingly spread in the West with several slight variations. Since the fourth century, it has been considered as compiled by the Apostles themselves. In the East, however, it has remained unknown.

But now let us turn to chapter 19 of your book: Even if your interpretation of John 1:1 is very far from what the evangelist intended, there is still an important convergence. If, however, you wish to replace God with “Nature,” the question remains as to who or what this nature is. Nowhere do you define it and it therefore appears to be an irrational divinity which explains nothing. However, I would like especially to note that in your religion of mathematics three fundamental themes of human existence are not considered: freedom, love and evil. I am surprised that with a nod you set aside freedom which has been and still remains a fundamental value of the modern age. Love does not appear in your book, nor does the question of evil. Whatever neurobiology says or does not say about freedom, in the real drama of our history it is present as a crucial reality and it must be taken into account. However, your mathematical religion knows of no answer to the question of freedom, it ignores love and it does not give us any information on evil. A religion that neglects these fundamental questions is empty.

Distinguished Professor, my critique of your book is, in part, tough. However, frankness is a part of dialogue. Only thus can knowledge grow. You have been very frank and so you will accept that I am, too. In any case, however, I consider it very positive that you, in confronting my Introduction to Christianity, have sought such an open dialogue with the faith of the Catholic Church and that, despite its contrasts, at the centre of it all, convergences are not completely lacking.

With cordial greetings and every best wish in your work,

Benedict XVI

Read more: Full Text of Benedict XVI's Letter to Atheist |Blogs | NCRegister.com
 
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outhouse

Atheistically
Again, you use a non-sequitur fallacy

Nope, you need to take a class on this and found out what the world actually knows.

There are many parallels to the Emperors divinity by gospel authors, you juts have no knowledge of such and refuse it due to bias.



Whatever "divine" term the Emperor may have been called, it was out of legislation by the Senate

Nope, you need to take a class on this and found out what the world actually knows.

The Emperor himself Augustus, started this when he witnessed an event in the night sky, and proclaimed it was his father Caesar being resurrected. He later deemed himself son of god. Sound familiar?????

later you had the Imperial cult that had legislation applied.


Jesus was called "Son of God" by his followers by conviction, not political expediency.

Yes self defined as I posted as the unknown authors of marks wrote. In Hellenistic context it was not the literal son of god. Quit assuming context you know nothing about.

These same people who called the Emperor are the same culture and people that called Jesus son of god.

For his Aramaic followers to call him son of god would have been blasphemy for any cultural Jew to redefine god.

They wrote from memory and were very good at it. Tradition is not a dirty word.

Not one was an eyewitness.

Tradition is not a dirty word, so don't assume my version is because you don't like it.

You may have no clue just how good they were. But none the less, we know the gospel named mark was a compilation of pre existing traditions. Some written and some oral.

We know the communities who wrote what would be called Matthew and Luke also compiled their traditions written and oral as well.

Eye witnesses don't need memory or any pre existing traditions.

Not only that one you become educated on this topic and actually learn the cultural and physical anthropology you know nothing about, new doors of understanding will open up for you.


Don't be afraid of the truth here, it only enhances the beauty of the text, far superior then the literal dogma
 

outhouse

Atheistically
The paintings in the Roman Catacombs did not come from evolved myths,

Correct, they did not.

They came from belief and faith learned through the same text we have today.

Just as you would not follow any belief in the literature from this period on Jesus, which I suspect you know little about pseudepigrapha from this period.

In the same respect that you wont follow 400 year old text as true, why follow art work from people removed from his live for 400 years.
 

outhouse

Atheistically
Before they were monotheistic they weren't called Israelites.

Love ya brother you have passion for what you believe. But there is strength in knowledge in a debate getting to the truth. Not perceived truth.


Yes they were. learn the history, learn the cultural anthropology your so literally blind here. Because this is not up for debate and you dont know where to turn.


Israelites were polytheistic all the way to and just shy of Jesus birth roughly 200-400 BC.


It took hundreds of years after the monotheistic reforms of King Josiah after 622 BC just to make it a political decision.
 

outhouse

Atheistically
Well, apparently they failed to “rub” out Yahweh from being The EL and ELHYM because thousands of Hebrew Torah scrolls and Jewish and Christian Holy Bibles preserved Yahweh as EL, ELOAH, ELHYM to this very day. I guess it’s true of what Yahweh God Almighty said about his remnant on earth preserving the truths of Yahweh as the EL, the AELHYM:

They did fail to remove their polytheistic past from the text. And yes much of Elohim does originate from cultures that placed more importance on El then Yahweh.


The book was edited to monotheism, on purpose to try and hide their past.
 

Kolibri

Well-Known Member
I like that and it makes more sense than the King James Version.

It is actually challenging to find an English translation that gives this alternate thought to Hebrews 1:8

The BibleAn American Translation (1935), J. M. Powis Smith and Edgar J. Goodspeed.
The Bible in Living English (published in 1972), Steven T. Byington.
A New Translation of the Bible (1934), James Moffatt
The Twentieth Century New Testament, Revised Edition (1904)
New World Translation

These are the only ones I know of.

At least in Psalms 45 it is a bit easier.
Revised Standard Version, Second Edition (1971) has "Your divine throne"
The Holy Scriptures According to the Masoretic Text (1917), Jewish Publication Society of America has "Thy throne given of God”
The New English Bible (1970) has "Your throne is like God’s throne"

“The LXX. admits of two renderings: [ho the·osʹ] can be taken as a vocative in both cases (Thy throne, O God, . . . therefore, O God, Thy God . . . ) or it can be taken as the subject (or the predicate) in the first case (God is Thy throne, or Thy throne is God . . . ), and in apposition to [ho the·osʹ sou] in the second case (Therefore God, even Thy God . . . ). . . . It is scarcely possible that [’Elo·himʹ] in the original can be addressed to the king. The presumption therefore is against the belief that [ho the·osʹ] is a vocative in the LXX. Thus on the whole it seems best to adopt in the first clause the rendering: God is Thy throne (or, Thy throne is God), that is ‘Thy kingdom is founded upon God, the immovable Rock.’”
—The Epistle to the Hebrews (London, 1889), pp. 25, 26.
 
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kepha31

Active Member
Is not a scholar, nor does he have a historical education. It is literally over his head.
He has faith when it comes to history, not knowledge.
You should look up "scholar".
From 1946 to 1951 he studied philosophy and theology in the Higher School of Philosophy and Theology of Freising and at the University of Munich.
He received his priestly ordination on 29 June 1951.
A year later he began teaching at the Higher School of Freising.

In 1953 he obtained his doctorate in theology with a thesis entitled "People and House of God in St Augustine’s Doctrine of the Church".

Four years later, under the direction of the renowned professor of fundamental theology Gottlieb Söhngen, he qualified for University teaching with a dissertation on: "The Theology of History in St Bonaventure".

After lecturing on dogmatic and fundamental theology at the Higher School of Philosophy and Theology in Freising, he went on to teach at Bonn, from 1959 to1963; at Münster from 1963 to 1966 and at Tübingen from 1966 to 1969. During this last year he held the Chair of dogmatics and history of dogma at the University of Regensburg, where he was also Vice-President of the University.

From 1962 to 1965 he made a notable contribution to Vatican II as an "expert"; being present at the Council as theological advisor of Cardinal Joseph Frings, Archbishop of Cologne.

His intense scientific activity led him to important positions at the service of the German Bishops’ Conference and the International Theological Commission.

In 1972 together with Hans Urs von Balthasar, Henri de Lubac and other important theologians, he initiated the theological journal "Communio".

On 25 March 1977 Pope Paul VI named him Archbishop of Munich and Freising. On 28 May of the same year he received episcopal ordination. He was the first Diocesan priest for 80 years to take on the pastoral governance of the great Bavarian Archdiocese. He chose as his episcopal motto: "Cooperators of the truth". He himself explained why: "On the one hand I saw it as the relation between my previous task as professor and my new mission. In spite of different approaches, what was involved, and continued to be so, was following the truth and being at its service. On the other hand I chose that motto because in today’s world the theme of truth is omitted almost entirely, as something too great for man, and yet everything collapses if truth is missing".

Nope, you need to take a class on this and found out what the world actually knows.

There are many parallels to the Emperors divinity by gospel authors, you juts have no knowledge of such and refuse it due to bias.
I just learned about Emperors titles from wikipedia.

The Emperor himself Augustus, started this when he witnessed an event in the night sky, and proclaimed it was his father Caesar being resurrected. He later deemed himself son of god. Sound familiar?????

Very frequently, the pagan influence fallacy is committed in connection with other fallacies, most notably the post hoc ergo proper hoc ("After this, therefore because of this") fallacy—e.g., "Some ancient pagans did or believed something millennia ago, therefore any parallel Christian practices and beliefs must be derived from that source." Frequently, a variant on this fallacy is committed in which, as soon as a parallel with something pagan is noted, it is assumed that the pagan counterpart is the more ancient. This variant might be called the similis hoc ergo propter hoc ("Similar to this, therefore because of this") fallacy.

Is the parallel dependent or independent? Even if there is a pagan parallel, that does not mean that there is a causal relationship involved. Two groups may develop similar beliefs, practices, and artifacts totally independently of each other. The idea that similar forms are always the result of diffusion from a common source has long been rejected by archaeology and anthropology, and for very good reason: Humans are similar to each other and live in similar (i.e., terrestrial) environments, leading them to have similar cultural artifacts and views.

Is the parallel antecedent or consequent? Even if there is a pagan parallel that is causally related to a non-pagan counterpart, this does not establish which gave rise to the other. It may be that the pagan parallel is a late borrowing from a non-pagan source. Frequently, the pagan sources we have are so late that they have been shaped in reaction to Jewish and Christian ideas. Sometimes it is possible to tell that pagans have been borrowing from non-pagans. Other times, it cannot be discerned who is borrowing from whom (or, indeed, if anyone is borrowing from anyone).

Is the parallel treated positively, neutrally, or negatively? Even if there is a pagan parallel to a non-pagan counterpart, that does not mean that the item or concept was enthusiastically or uncritically accepted by non-pagans. One must ask how they regarded it. Did they regard it as something positive, neutral, or negative?
Is Catholicism Pagan? | Catholic Answers

Your logical fallacy, that you have repeated several times, is refuted.​

later you had the Imperial cult that had legislation applied.
The imperial office at its foundation represented an amalgamation of different offices of the old Roman republic, including princeps Senatus, consul and Pontifex Maximus. The legitimacy of an emperor's rule depended on his control of the army and recognition by the Senate; an emperor would normally be proclaimed by his troops, or invested with imperial titles by the Senate, or both...
...In 27 BC, Octavian appeared before the Senate and offered to retire from active politics and government; the Senate not only requested he remain, but increased his powers and made them lifelong, awarding him the title of Augustus (the elevated or divine one, somewhat less than a god but approaching divinity).​
Roman emperor - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Sorry fella, you're wrong.
Yes self defined as I posted as the unknown authors of marks wrote. In Hellenistic context it was not the literal son of god. Quit assuming context you know nothing about.

The reasons for the decline of Hellenistic Judaism are obscure. It may be that it was marginalized by, absorbed into, or became Early Christianity (see the Gospel according to the Hebrews). The Epistles of Paul and the Acts of the Apostles report that, after his initial focus on the conversion of Hellenized Jews across Anatolia, Macedonia, Thrace and Northern Syria without criticizing their laws and traditions,[11][12]Paul of Tarsus eventually preferred to evangelize communities of Greek and Macedonian proselytes and Godfearers, or Greek circles sympathetic to Judaism:
Hellenistic Judaism - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

You dismiss Paul's teaching of Christ's divinity to the Hellenist's and mock the Gospels as not authentic enough for you. It seems to me you are defending an Enlightenment era paradigm and not interested in the truth. Thus you insult the Pope because you think you know everything.

These same people who called the Emperor are the same culture and people that called Jesus son of god.
Yea, right. The Jews and the Christians called the emperor god and I am supposed to take you as an authority on history???
For his Aramaic followers to call him son of god would have been blasphemy for any cultural Jew to redefine god.
Why do you think the Jews wanted Him dead??? DUH!! HELLO???

Not one was an eyewitness.
What would satisfy you? An apostolic video camera?

Tradition is not a dirty word, so don't assume my version is because you don't like it.
I'm not assuming anything, it was for the sake of our anti-tradition readers. If I knew "your version" of Tradition, we might avoid you parroting the "no eye witnesses" fallacy. You should be teaching us the rules of historical documentary evidence instead of bending them to suit your opinions.

[/quote]You may have no clue just how good they were. But none the less, we know the gospel named mark was a compilation of pre existing traditions. Some written and some oral.

We know the communities who wrote what would be called Matthew and Luke also compiled their traditions written and oral as well.

Eye witnesses don't need memory or any pre existing traditions.

Not only that one you become educated on this topic and actually learn the cultural and physical anthropology you know nothing about, new doors of understanding will open up for you.

Don't be afraid of the truth here, it only enhances the beauty of the text, far superior then the literal dogma[/QUOTE]

Correct, they did not.

They came from belief and faith learned through the same text we have today.

Just as you would not follow any belief in the literature from this period on Jesus, which I suspect you know little about pseudepigrapha from this period.
We discussed pseudepigrapha in a previous discussion, I know what it is.

In the same respect that you wont follow 400 year old text as true, why follow art work from people removed from his live for 400 years.
For the same reason they painted them in the first place.
 

Kolibri

Well-Known Member
What do you think Jesus was doing in the temple trying to overthrow the corrupt government by himself?

Sorry for the delay, I kept forgetting where I saw this question and what it referred to.

Jesus was not trying to overthrow the government here. This was his Father's house. Twice Jesus drove out the merchants that were likely working for Annas' family. They were selling sacrifices within the temple grounds and turning Jehovah's temple into a means of profiteering. This was not a political move in the least and he did this on his own. (John 2:13-16; Mt 21:12,13; Mr 11:15-17; Lu 19:45,46)

At most this would be as a family member forcefully telling unwanted salesmen to get off his Father's property.
 

Tumah

Veteran Member
I'm interested in hearing thoughts about (1) Where this idea comes from and (2) If you agree with it and why/why not. I have heard it described like this: Because of the Trinity, Jesus is God, and all the things done in the Old Testament were therefore done by Jesus prior to his human incarnation. Thoughts?

It doesn't make any sense.
We have 24 volumes of Scriptures that make no explicit mention of "Jesus, G-d". He doesn't appear to be scared of attributing other names to Himself. There is an E-l Shad-dai. There is a YHWH. There is Ado-nai. There is no Jesus. What are we to believe? G-d was saving His best name for last? Why would he hide this for 24 books spanning thousands of years? Reading passages as references to this Jesus doesn't make any sense. Why explicitly mention every other name except the one that will literally make or break belief in Jesus' divinity?

The best answer I can come up with, is that G-d does everything on a grand scale and this is the grandest prank of all.
 

kepha31

Active Member
Love ya brother you have passion for what you believe. But there is strength in knowledge in a debate getting to the truth. Not perceived truth.
Yes they were. learn the history, learn the cultural anthropology your so literally blind here. Because this is not up for debate and you dont know where to turn.
Israelites were polytheistic all the way to and just shy of Jesus birth roughly 200-400 BC.
It took hundreds of years after the monotheistic reforms of King Josiah after 622 BC just to make it a political decision.
I didn't know Isaiah was a politician:

Isaiah 44 [6] Thus saith the Lord the king of Israel, and his redeemer the Lord of hosts: I am the first, and I am the last, and besides me there is no God. [7] Who is like to me? let him call and declare: and let him set before me the order, since I appointed the ancient people: and the things to come, and that shall be hereafter, let them shew unto them.

Written between (circa) 740-680 B.C.

I am the first, and I am the last. Gee, where have we seen that before? Oh, I remember, John didn't write Revelation.:rolleyes:

Monolatry is not the same as polytheism, you know that. But I concede to your point to a degree. God chose to reveal himself gradually, in terms of milleniums. Polytheism or Polyanna, it's irrelevant to the truth of Christ's life, death, Resurrection and Ascension. Keep looking. Truth may be "proven", but at the end of the day, truth has to be found.
 
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JM2C

CHRISTIAN
Unsubstantiated, this thread requires more then opinion.




They also called the emperor son of god, before jesus was even born.


Its also unlikely Jesus ever uttered that phrase. But the same Hellenist who used to worship the Emperor, as "son of god" are the same people that called Jesus "son of god" as only Hellenist were the authors of all of the NT
same argument will get the same answer. Their gods or the gods of the pagans are not the same as the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. You need to understand the difference. Not because one is called the “son of god” by pagans in the pagan world does not mean “the Son of God”, i.e., the Lord Jesus Christ is the same with them pagans. You need to understand that if what we need is “how to define his divinity in relationship to god” and John explicitly explained this in the beginning of his gospel, i.e., John 1:1 then what is the problem?

The majority of the debate was not if Jesus was divine, but how to define his divinity in relationship to god.
 
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JM2C

CHRISTIAN
Psalm 110 has two obvious "lords" for Christians, which David foresaw. One is adonai. One is adoni. Not knowing the difference is your confusion, sir.

Psalm 110:1 should read like this, “The Lord (YHWH) says to my Lord (ADNY), Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”

Isaiah 21:16 Dead Sea Scroll VERSION: For thus has the Lord(ADNY/Hebrew/DSS Version) said to me, Within a year, according to the years of a hireling, and all the glory of Kedar shall fail;

See the difference without the vowel points? Confused?
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
We really don't care historically speaking about the communities work that produced the book attributed to John.
“On the other hand, early church tradition suggests that that John composed his Gospel in Ephesus (Asia Minor). An example of this is the testimony of Irenaeus: "Then John, the disciple of the Lord, who had even rested on his breast, himself also gave forth the Gospel, while he was living at Ephesus in Asia." -EusebiusHist. Eccl. 5.8.4

The following scholars are among those who date the Fourth Gospel between AD 80-100” Godet, Westcott, Brown, Bultmann, Barrett, Borchert, Turner, Mantey, Fuller, Tasker, Kysar, Bruce, Carson, Beasly-Murray, Kostenberger, Smalley, Moloney, Witherington, Lightfoot, Dodd, and Martin. See the list in Croteau, “An Analysis,” 79. Croteau himself discusses forty-one lines of argument with regard to the dating and concludes for a timespan of AD 80-100.
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
You need to ask yourself why Marks original gospel before the ending was added later, was so vague about Jesus relationship to god, being it was the first gospel the others plagiarized.
Did you mean Matthew and Luke plagiarized Mark’s?
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
Jesus is not YAHWEH (and he never said he was). Jesus is not THE GOD (and he never said he was). Jesus did said that he is the Son of God or a god (like Moses was).
Where in the bible did He say “a god”? You need to understand John 1:1-b “and the Word was with God” meaning two personal beings, one is “the Word”, i.e., the Son of God, who is God, in the bosom of the Father/God –John 1:18, and the other ONE is “the God”, i.e., the Father/God.

What it did NOT say in John 1:1-b is, “and the Word was the God” as the Unitarians’ arguments.
 

JM2C

CHRISTIAN
No holy men from Adam to Paul the Apostle ever claim that Jesus is The God, that is YAHWEH.

It is safe to address Jesus as simply the Son of God; and he will accept that honor. However, he will forbid you to address him as The God or YAHWEH; because that would violate the Number One commandment in the Ten Commandments.
Neither one of them apostles said that the Lord Jesus Christ is “The God”. You NEED TO UNDERSTAND John 1:1-b first before commenting on any of the apostles’ writings.
 
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