Here are some scriptures and a definition that prove you wrong and shows how Jews and today's scholars see eunuchs.
Isa_39:7 'They will carry off some of your descendants, your own offspring; and they will be made eunuchs serving in the palace of the king of Bavel."
Isa_56:4 For here is what Adonai says: "As for the eunuchs who keep my Shabbats, who choose what pleases me and hold fast to my covenant:
Mat_19:12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.
eu·nuch [ˈyo͞onək]
noun
a man who has been castrated, especially (in the past) one employed to guard the women's living areas at an oriental court.
origin
Old English, via Latineunuchus from Greekeunoukhos, literally ‘bedroom guard’, from eunē‘bed’ + a second element related to ekhein‘to hold’.
Jesus was Jewish, in the Roman empire. "Made eunuchs," as referred to in the scriptures, are men who were castrated. What we're talking about are "natural-born eunuchs" or "eunuchs from their mother's womb." There were differnt types. Everything you are quoting refers to made eunuchs. Here are some things to show what I mean.
We are talking about this verse specifically --
“Not everyone can accept this teaching, but only those to whom it is given. For there are eunuchs who have been so from birth, and there are eunuchs who have been made eunuchs by others, and there are eunuchs who have made themselves eunuchs for the sake of the kingdom of heaven. Let anyone accept this who can.” (Matthew 19:11-12)
So those who made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven didn't actually castrate themselves, they were celibate. Jesus still refers to them as eunuchs. Why? Because he's talking about the three types of people who should not marry women.
So what about born eunuchs? Well, Jewish culture at the time, as evidenced by Rabbi Eliezer, felt that these were specifically overly feminine gay men. We actually see this in the Talmud, so we know for a fact that Jewish people knew and used the term. So, Jesus would know the term. They discuss it in the Talmud in reference to a levirate marriage. According to the Talmud, a made eunuch must go through a shaming ceremony if he cannot fulfill his levirate marriage, but a eunuch-by-nature does not.
" A eunuch-by-nature neither submits to
chalitsah nor is
chalitsah arranged for his wife, since there never was a time when he was fit." Rabbi Akibah says this much.
Rabbi Eliezer disagreed and said, like many erroneously do now, that eunuchs-by-nature could be cured. "Not so, but a eunuch-by-nature submits to
chalitsah and
chalitsah is also arranged for his wife, because he may be cured. A man-made eunuch neither submits to
chalitsah nor is
chalitsah arranged for his wife, since he cannot be cured."
So, obviously Jesus knew the term, and knew what it meant. It was clearly in the Talmud. It was also a large part of Roman law, and Jesus lived in the Roman Empire.
In Lex Julia et Papia, Book 1, a book of Roman law, it states: "Eunuch is a general designation: the term includes those who are eunuchs by nature, the crushed and the pounded, as well as any other kind of eunuch," So there were three kinds, only one of which your references are talking about.
Continuing in the law books... later it gives lists of who can determine an heir not of their body. (D 28.2.6) says that someone who cannot
easily procreate is nonetheless entitled to institute a posthumous heir, but it gives no concrete examples of such a man. it states separately that the "natural born eunuch" holds this right as well, while "castrated men" expressly do not.
So yes, Jesus talked about gay men, and he never condemned them. All he ever says is that they're not to marry women.