If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death;
There is no love in disobedience.
May I assume that (since you're advocating for this law, you're implying your responsibility as "gatekeeper"), if you meet any convicted homosexuals, you'll put them to death, since you love God and don't want to disobey what God directs (which is to kill homosexuals)?
The point of the story was that sodomy was/is an abomination to GOD and worthy of death.
And the "abomination" was the sin of inhospitality.
The point of the story was that sodomy was/is an abomination to GOD and worthy of death.
"Consent" wasn't and issue---that group of men had come to gang rape the "stranger". It was "lust" that was the driving force---not LOVE.
No, the mob implied forcible rape, not simply "lust."
When the language being given is translated into words of a different meaning, the original meaning/message is NOT received as the message in the original language.
Which sometimes happens in the process of translation, since, many times, there are no equivalent words/phrases, plus there are differences of culture that render phrases not understandable in a culture other than the one in which the writing occurred.
GOD says what HE means---man's thoughts/sayings are such that one has to check them against the "Thus saith the Lord GOD".
But we only know what God "says" through the lens of flawed, biased, and limited human beings. God may "say" what God means, but that, by no means, means that the writer fully understands and accurately records what God "says." Therefore, what we're left with is a mere opinion of the writer of what God "says." We have no real "thus saith the Lord" to which to compare anything.
When one's "critical reading" is an attempt to distort the "Thus saith the Lord GOD", that is attempting to "cast doubt".
Critical reading doesn't attempt to distort. It attempts to
clarify. Otherwise, it's not "critical reading." it's something else. "Wishful thinking," perhaps.
There is nothing vague or hard to understand concerning man is not to lie(have sex)with man as with woman."
There is when we assume things, and don't have all the information regarding the original languages, contexts, cultural implications, etc.
GOD is not the author of confusion---that comes from mankind in trying to circumvent the messages for a right relationship to GOD or Mankind.
Again, God "authored" nothing. All we're left with is what human beings wrote. Perhaps one of them "circumvented" a message?
Or maybe (more likely) they were simply ... wrong.
What was recorded in the Bible was what GOD inspired holy men to write. What was written and bound as the Bible was overseen by the Holy Spirit.
None of that means that mistakes weren't possible or made.
The Scriptures say differently--as previously shown.
Sorry. I've read the OT cover-to-cover many times. Jesus patently Does. Not. Appear therein.