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Is religion dying?

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
I don't care in the slightest about the nuances of a language. I am operating within the borders of classical logic. And the conclusions are inescapable. If we all know what it means:

1) Knowing people
2) People being Jews
3) Being Atheist
4) Understanding the rule of negation for universal qualifiers

Then the result is inescapable. By a simple application of logic. Which does not give a rip of your language nuances, intuitions, philosophy, or whatever. And since I claim, as premise, uniquely the application of classical logic, your entire argument here is moot.

But if you prefer, I can say the same in German, which, probably because of Germany's long cultural history in math and logic, have no problem whatsoever with that:

Weil keinen Juden persönlich kenne, ist es so, dass Alle Juden die ich kenne, Atheisten sind.

Feel better?

Ciao

- viole

What does know have to do with anything? That is epistemology and thus philosophy. But you don't do philosophy to you know nothing. In fact it is a lie that you are an ontological naturalist, because that is not classical logic, but philosophy. ;)
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
Well can be, but that also completely invalidate your case.

Because, the negation of "all the Jews I know are atheists" is, according to the laws of negation of universal qualifiers, equals to "there is at least one Jew I know that is not Atheist". Another well defined rule of classical logic.

Universal quanTifier. Not universal quaLifier. But anyway, as I said, this is irrelevant. The contradiction is when the vacuous truth is applied.

Here is a course on that -->

But it cannot possibly be the case that there is at least one Jew I know that is not Atheist, for the simple reason that I do not know any Jew, as per premise.

Just as it cannot be the case that you know any Jewish atheists.

As long as the statement is phrased as a negative assertion, everything works beautifully. This is because ~( Q XOR ~Q ) = ( Q AND Q ) OR ( ~Q AND ~Q ).

This can be seen by analysing the truth table for XOR.

Therefore, the negation of "all the Jews I know are Atheists" is necessarily false. And the laws of classical logic dictate that the original, not negated claim, must then be true.

No..... the negation is also vacuously-true. They're both vacuously-true simultaneously. You are ignoring the truth table you are using.

"there is at least one Jew I know that is not Atheist". If I don't know any Jews, then the antecedent is FALSE. According to your so-called logic, the consequent is vacuously true.

Therefore, by the simple application of two fixed rules of classical logic, I can conclude

--> Since I know no Jews, It is indeed the case that all the Jews I know are Atheists.
No...... this is incomplete and false.

Since I know no Jews, It is indeed the case that all the Jews I vacuously-know are Atheists.

You have no knowledge, you are ignorant. That's the truth.

And there is nothing you can do against that without going out of the well defined rules of classical logic.

Nope, you're wrong. The only way to avoid making false statements is to be more precise. If it is vacuous, it needs to be stated.

And that is why any attempt to negate that, or to find a contradiction of that, are doomed to fail. As they systematically did in all your rebuttals.

No, you have rebutted nothing. You found a tiny error in my proof which was easily fixed and obviously not intended, because it was correct in 3 other places.

Each and every vacuous truth simultaneously implies the vacuous truth of the opposite. This is evident and proven when words are defined properly. This violates the law of non-contradiction. Youtubes from fellow adherents are meaningless in a debate.
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
I don't care in the slightest about the nuances of a language. I am operating within the borders of classical logic. And the conclusions are inescapable. If we all know what it means:

Of course they're escapable. They're escapable everytime you depend on a vacuous-truth.

1) Knowing people
2) People being Jews
3) Being Atheist
4) Understanding the rule of negation for universal qualifiers

And are any of those definitions included in the statement "All the Jews I know are atheists AND I don't know any Jews"?

As soon as you introduce the defintion of "knowing" you failed. The only way to avoid it is to split the statement in half and read it backwards. Which is what you've done a few times.

Since I know no Jews, It is indeed the case that all the Jews I know are Atheists.

See that ^^, you flippy-flopped the statement around. Then if you insert the NOW first part into the second part, what is rendered is a negative assertion: "I DON'T KNOW ANY JEWISH ATHEISTS".

The next conditions are a fail, of course, because no person can be both atheist and theist, but that defintion is not included in the statement.

And the negation of a universal quantifier, proves my point because the original statement and its negation are both vacuously true.

You Loooooooose, again.

Then the result is inescapable. By a simple application of logic. Which does not give a rip of your language nuances, intuitions, philosophy, or whatever. And since I claim, as premise, uniquely the application of classical logic, your entire argument here is moot.

Ummm, you're wrong and wronger. Logic is philosophy. And you DO need to include defintions in any proof or derivation. You already stated that Jews are people, and that means they cannot be both atheist and not atheist simultaneously, yet your so-called logic claims it's unqualified truth.

But if you prefer, I can say the same in German, which, probably because of Germany's long cultural history in math and logic, have no problem whatsoever with that:

Weil keinen Juden persönlich kenne, ist es so, dass Alle Juden die ich kenne, Atheisten sind.

Nein! Festnahme!

Weil keinen Juden persönlich kenne, ist es so, dass Alle Juden die ich VAGE-kenne, Atheisten sind.

Screenshot_20230530_122712.jpg
 

HaEmeth

Truth sets free
I think Christianity is dying but spirituality is rising. I don't think religion is dying. But I think it is possible. I think atheism and agnosticism will keep rising, and as a result organized religion will lose its influence.
On the contrary, mainstream religion is dying but Christianity will survive. If a particular religion which calls itself Christian is dying, then it is not Christian because true Christianity will never die. Read the words of the founder himself:

Matthew 16:18 "And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of Hades will not overcome it." - NIV

We must realize that not all who call themselves Christians are really Christians. Their beliefs and practices betray their true identity.

Matthew 7:21-23Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. Many will say to me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name and in your name drive out demons and in your name perform many miracles?’ Then I will tell them plainly, ‘I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!’ “ - NIV

Jesus followers will grow but there will be no spectacular growth in numbers. He himself indicated such:

Matthew 7:13-14 “Enter through the narrow gate. For wide is the gate and broad is the road that leads to destruction, and many enter through it. But small is the gate and narrow the road that leads to life, and only a few find it.“ - NIV

Don't ask how one becomes a Christian? If one is in the side of the truth, Christianity will find him or her.

John 18:37 ”Everyone on the side of truth listens to me.” - NIV

To reiterate: Religion is dying, but true Christianity, NEVER!
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
Here we go. This is my new claim, still under the premise that I do not know any Jew:

P1) I do not know any Jew who believes in God.

Brilliant! That's a true statement. well done.

are we cool with that?

Definitely. Thank you.





I can obtain back my original statement by application of just one rule of logic. Namely the rule for negating existential qualifiers.

No, your original statement was false and incomplete. The best you can do is change it to the follwing but even that violates the law of non-contradiction.

All the Jews I VACUOUSLY-know are atheists and not atheists.

To make it complete, the word vacuous must be added, and the negation of atheists must be added.

And therefore, both statements are logically equivalent. Which is a good thing. So, that we basically agree on the same thing.

No, they aren't. When the terms are defined properly:

A Jew is either Atheist or not, but cannot be both: A known Jew is thus defined: J(x):{ Atheist XOR Not-Atheist }
If you don't know any Jews, and if the statement "All the Jews I know are Atheist" is considered true, then "All the Jews I know are not-Atheist" must also be considered true.
This contradicts the definition of a Jew.
"All the Jews I know are atheists" cannot be considered true, it is a contradiction of the definition of a Jew, if no Jews are known.

However! Using the same definition of a known Jew, negating it produces a tautology. This is evident from analyzing the truth table for XOR.

P | Q | P XOR Q
T | T | False
T | F | True
F | T | True
F | F | False

P | Q | Not ( P XOR Q )
T | T | True
T | F | False
F | T | False
F | F | True

In this case, P = Atheist and Q = Not Atheist

Notice, the top row and the bottom row of the truth table for Not-XOR. That's a tautology showing that ( Atheist and Not Atheist ) is true, and (Not Atheist and Atheist ) is true. And this is true for any set and any property and any proposition excluding its identity. This relationship between XOR and ~XOR IS classical logic, and it proves that any positive assertion about a property of an empty set is ALWAYS false. But, any negative assertion about an empty set it true. Again, with the one exception, of self-referential identity. The empty set is empty. Unknown Jews are unknown. etc.

Any property is mutually exclusive with the negation of that property. But the version of logic you are employing repeatedly ignores this and asserts a vacuous-truth about a property without asserting the negation of that property which is also simultaneously vacuously-true. This happens when terms are not defined properly, and sets which are not *actually* empty are modeled as if they are. It doesn't need to be problem, it's good and useful to construct sets that happen to empty, and to consider them like THE empty-set, and to model the empty-set behavior, but any conclusion that is reached MUST accomodate and acknowledge the inherent faults in the model.

If a set is constructed and modeled after THE empty set, and a logical conclusion is developed which indicates that this so-called empty-set has magically filled with any property, then... something has gone horribly wrong. The model was in appropriate, the method is flawed, some incorrect assumption was made along the way... In this case, it's multiple things that have gone wrong.

Win win situation.

No. It's a lose-win. You lost and I won.
  1. You had to change your claim twice
  2. I have shown that your claim is incomplete omitting "vacuous"
  3. I have shown that your claim is incomplete omitting the corresponding contradiction
  4. I have shown that the contradiction is being considered true in violation of the law of non-contradiction in classical logic
  5. I wrote a formal rigorous sound proof using classical logic establishing these facts
  6. I have summarized this proof above so that many can understand the faults in your positive assertion
  7. I have shown the logical difference between evaluating a positive assertion on non-existence compared to a negative assertion on non-existence.
  8. All of this is supported by Stanford university in its encyclopedia of philosophy in the entry on "Contradiction". It's not just ME saying this.
  9. Your objection to philosophy is rejected because logic is philosophy, and the law of non-contradiction is "classical logic".
  10. None of your arguments against my postition have been able to gain traction, all you have been able to bring is Youtubes of people who agree, but none of them address the contradiction of considering something true, when its mutually exclusive corresponding property is simultaneaously considered true.
So that's it. The debate is over. You lost and lost repeatedly. I understand that this idea "the empty-set obtains all" is a widely accepted notion, but, that doesn't make it *actually* true. Believe it or not, AI cautioned me about the oppostion I would encounter challenging it.
 
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dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
  1. I don’t know any Jew who believes in God ===
  2. There exists no Jew that I know who believes in God ===
  3. It is not the case that it exists one Jewish acquaintance such that: he/she believes in God ===
  4. For All Jews acquaintances : it is not the case that he/she believes in God ===
  5. All Jews I know do not believe in God ===
  6. All the Jews I know are Atheists

This is incomplete. ^^

  1. I don’t know any Jew who believes in God and not believes in God ===
  2. There exists no Jew that I know who believes in God and not believes in God ===
  3. It is not the case that it exists one Jewish acquaintance such that: he/she believes in God and not believes in God ===
  4. For All Jews acquaintances : it is not the case that he/she believes in God and not believes in God ===
  5. "For all Jews acquaintences : it is the case that he/she believes in God and not believes in God" is a contradiction.
  6. All Jews I know, it is not the case that he/she does not believe in God and believes in God ( restating step 4, definition of "AND" ) ===
  7. All the Jews I know, it is not the case that they are Atheists and not-Atheists.
Compared to:
  1. I don’t know any Jew who believes in God ===
  2. There exists no Jew that I know who believes in God ===
  3. It is not the case that it exists one Jewish acquaintance such that: he/she believes in God ===
  4. For All Jews acquaintances : it is not the case that he/she believes in God ===
  5. All Jews I know do not believe in God ===
  6. All the Jews I know are Atheists
There is a lot omitted from your so-called proof. One can see that precision is being reduced step by step, leading to the final statement in step 6, which is removing as many words as possible.

You need to include "it is not the case" in steps 6 and 7 in order for this to begin to be valid. And the contradiction needs to be declared.

The only not trivial step is between 3) and 4) where I systematically apply the rule to negate an existential qualifier; Existential qualifier turns into universal qualifiers (“it exists” becomes “for all”) and the negation (“it is not the case”) slips inside. As in the course that I posted.

Sure, but you omitted "it is not the case" in the remainder of the steps.

The other steps are just different English for the same thing. Therefore, the conclusion follows from the initial claim, inescapably.

No, they're not. And it's easily escaped once "it is not the case" is included instead of omitted.

You lose, again.
 
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dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
Nope. The first step is “I don’t know any Jew who believes in God”. no need to add anything to it.

You sure do if you want to prove anything. A proof requires complete and accurate definitions.

you agreed with it. Therefore, either you are schizophrenic, or you must accept your previous admission, that this sentence is true, according to my premise that I do not know any Jews. And it is true, oder?

I agreed with it in isolation.

therefore, not only your argument fails immediately, by adding unnecessary things to what is already true, but it contradicts your own admission that it is indeed the case that “I don’t know any Jew who believes in God”.

Nope, you are omitting necessary "things".

It is true that "I don't know any Jews who believes in God" if "I don't know any Jews", simply because "I don't know any ... " does not contradict "I don't know any ..." That is obviousl. However, because a Jew is defined: J:{ Atheist XOR Not-Atheist }. Attempting the positive assertion based on a vacuous-truth fails everytime.

therefore, it collapses at the first line in a cloud of inconsistency, and self defeating declarations. :)

Nope. Each proof needs to define it's terms and needs to be complete. Not doing that can result in erroneous conclusions. Even if your proof is accepted on a preliminary basis it is easily escaped and defeated and shown to be a contradiction in violation of the definition of Jew in another corresponding proof.
 
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viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
You sure do if you want to prove anything. A proof requires complete and accurate definitions.
Yes, and I am just referring, as first step, to what you acknowledged to be true. After all, I am free to use, as first statement of a derivation, what is true. What would you think of people who would not allow you to do that? And if it was not precise, why did you even thank me for that?

so, we have three possibilities, and we shall go very systematic and focused about that. No matter how long it will take.

1) I‘m not allowed to start a logical derivation with a true statement
2) you backtrack from your previous admission that my statement was true
3) you accept me starting a logical derivation with a true statement

So, what do you prefer? Your call.

ciao

- viole
 
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dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
Yes, and I am just referring, as first step, to what you acknowledged to be true. After all, I am free to use, as first statement of a derivation, what is true. What would you think of people who would not allow you to do that? And if it was not precise, why did you even thank me for that?

I thanked you, because you offered to compromise. And I accepted the compromise.

but let’s see if we can find a compromise that will stop this comical conversation.

The compromise was ending the debate AND making the claim as a negative assertion is permitted, even if that claim speaks about Jewish-atheists which, in theory, you might think bothers me. ( but it doesn't ).

you just fell into it like an amateur :)

And you exposed moral bankruptcy by offering a compromise AND offering to end the debate, then going back on that in the span of, I don't know, 20 minutes.

so, we have three possibilities:

No.... you are again omitting, lacking precision...

1) I‘m not allowed to start a logical derivation with a true statement
2) you backtrack from your previous admission that my statement was true
3) you accept me starting a logical derivation with a true statement

This ^^ is incomplete.

1) I‘m not allowed to start a logical derivation with a true statement, if the corresponding contradiction is ignored throughout the remainder of the proof
2) you backtrack from your previous admission that my statement was true, if the corresponding contradiction is ignored throughout the remainder of the proof
3) you accept me starting a logical derivation with a true statement, if the corresponding contradiction is not ignored throughout the remainder of the proof

So, what do you prefer?

I accept all three when they include the necessary conditions for any proof.

Or, I can easily invalidate your proof and escape its logic by showing the contradiction myself in a corresponding proof.
 

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
I thanked you, because you offered to compromise. And I accepted the compromise.
yes, but you said: finally a true statement! Or something like that. i can show you the post number, if you insist. And you thank me for that. Which is OK, because it is indeed obviously true.

so, are you telling me now that it was not true, after all? That you accepted as compromise something that was, as you call them, a lie?

again, your call.

ciao

- violw
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
yes, but you said: finally a true statement! Or something like that. i can show you the post number, if you insist. And you thank me for that. Which is OK, because it is indeed obviously true.

Yes, If "you do not know any..." "you don't know any ..." is an obvious truth.

so, are you telling me now that it was not true, after all?

No, I'm telling you it is inadaquate / incomplete in a proof where a Jew cannot be both Atheist and Not-Atheist simultaneously.

That you accepted as compromise something that was, as you call them, a lie?

No, Accepted the compromise which included ending the debate. When you re-opened the debate, you either lied, or forgot what you said. Or you cannot tell the difference between truth and fiction. Or maybe you don't know what the words meant that you were typing.

again, your call.

My call is, You have lost repeatedly. I won repeatedly. I have not gone back on my word. The statement is true, but it cannot be used in isolation in a proof without including the negation of the property.

My entire argument is proven by proper definition of a Jew and analyzing the truth tables for ( Q XOR ~Q ) and ~( Q XOR ~Q ).

And this can be generalized for any set, any property, and any assertion excluding an identity.

200w (2).gif
 

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
Yes, If "you do not know any..." "you don't know any ..." is an obvious truth.
Excellent. So, you agree that if my premise is: I do not know any Jew. Then it is true that: I do not know any Jew who believes in God?

We need to be dead sure that you agree the last sentence to be true, according to the premise. So, please confirm. And if you do not agree, please point out how that could possibly be false.

ciao

- viole
 

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
Yes, If "you do not know any..." "you don't know any ..." is an obvious truth.



No, I'm telling you it is inadaquate / incomplete in a proof where a Jew cannot be both Atheist and Not-Atheist simultaneously.



No, Accepted the compromise which included ending the debate. When you re-opened the debate, you either lied, or forgot what you said. Or you cannot tell the difference between truth and fiction. Or maybe you don't know what the words meant that you were typing.



My call is, You have lost repeatedly. I won repeatedly. I have not gone back on my word. The statement is true, but it cannot be used in isolation in a proof without including the negation of the property.

My entire argument is proven by proper definition of a Jew and analyzing the truth tables for ( Q XOR ~Q ) and ~( Q XOR ~Q ).

And this can be generalized for any set, any property, and any assertion excluding an identity.

View attachment 78027By
By the way, strange chess board you have there. It seems to have at least 121 squares, LOL. Don’t tell me you do not even know chess :)

ciao

- viole
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
Excellent. So, you agree that if my premise is: I do not know any Jew. Then it is true that: I do not know any Jew who believes in God?

We need to be dead sure that you agree the last sentence to be true, according to the premise. So, please confirm. And if you do not agree, please point out how that could possibly be false.

ciao

- viole

It is true as a conclusion, but it cannot be used in as a premise in a valid proof to accomplish your goal without including the negation "who does not believe in God." There are numerous ways to include this negation in the proof. I think it's easiest to include it in the first step.
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
By the way, strange chess board you have there. It seems to have at least 121 squares, LOL. Don’t tell me you do not even know chess :)

ciao

- viole

All that matters is, your King is caput. Your argument is dead.
 

mikkel_the_dane

My own religion
Excellent. So, you agree that if my premise is: I do not know any Jew. Then it is true that: I do not know any Jew who believes in God?

We need to be dead sure that you agree the last sentence to be true, according to the premise. So, please confirm. And if you do not agree, please point out how that could possibly be false.

ciao

- viole

It is incomplete. I don't know any Jews, mean for all that I could know about Jews I don't know any of that, because I don't know any Jews.
So it is neither true or false in itself, it is incomplete.
You are playing with words for the word know, but ignore that knowledge is not just logic in the formal sense.

In effect for Jews with another property of being other than a Jew, you would have to list all other properties that could be true and then make a set of properties that you don't know.
 

viole

Ontological Naturalist
Premium Member
It is true as a conclusion, but it cannot be used in as a premise in a valid proof to accomplish your goal without including the negation "who does not believe in God." There are numerous ways to include this negation in the proof. I think it's easiest to include it in the first step.
Well, why not? Can you tell me what truths can be used as a premise, and which ones are not allowed? And according to what criteria?

ciao

- viole
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
well, my king is caput. From latin: caput = head.

don’t tell me that you cannot even tell the difference between latin and german, lol.

ciao

- viole

Well. if we're using your so-called logic, if I don't know latin, caput is known to mean everything, anything and nothing.
 

dybmh

ויהי מבדיל בין מים למים
Well, why not? Can you tell me what truths can be used as a premise, and which ones are not allowed? And according to what criteria?

ciao

- viole

Sure, a valid proof needs to address counter-examples and contradictions, otherwise those counter examples and contradictions disprove.

This is described in chapter 9 of the attached PDF. Your so-called proof ignores and omits the contradiction of the definition of Jew and Atheist. And this same contradiciton exists in any set, any property, and any propostion of vacuous truth about the empty-set excluding the identity.

Here's info on the author. But you should know this already. And you have already denied accepting contradictions as true.


Screenshot_20230531_120546.jpg
 

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