So why was the revelation of the almighty,
all-knowing God released then, of all times? In Israel in 4BC, (as the song goes) there was no mass communication.
To get to the point - popularity means nothing. Don't argue like mass opinion means anything, because it doesn't.
You are one of the most competent debaters in these threads but you post so infrequently it is hard to maintain a discussion to resolution with you. I however think you have misfired quite a bit here. I will list my counterpoints in list form.
1. Mass opinion does mean something in most cases. In fact your side spends a great deal of time insisting exactly the opposite of what you did. I however would agree it does not prove anything.
2. If you examine population levels verses time you will see (I forget the numbers) but I believe over 90% of people lived after Christ came.
3. Mankind was not devoid of revelation before 4BC. They had an oral tradition they claimed went back to the beginning and had a written revelation very early in the historical era.
4. Even without that God said nature alone is enough to believe. He also said that man is only responsible for his response based on the revelation he received. This is a complex concept and unless forced will leave it there.
5. Man was also endowed with a God given conscience that provides a witness to the character of God.
6. According to the Bible God talked daily to the very first homo sapiens with a soul and I might add acted in supernatural ways far more often than he did after Christ.
7. Jesus was not the first revelation, he was the climax of previous revelation.
8. The OT was filled with prior prophets.
I hoped you would continue to critique my cosmological arguments. I think you are more educated than me but the more I learn about cosmology the worse your case looks. Your intelligence is worthy of a better cause.