Aren't you committing precisely the same sin that you accuse Plato of committing? You sound awfully convinced that you are "tethered" and that you have "a grounding or foundation in reality". So how are you any different than the people that you criticise?
Are you saying that one can draw meaningful conclusion on the properties of mind and consciousness with no understanding of how the central nervous system works?
Are you saying one can declare the purpose of the cosmos and the existence of life based on our current understanding of how these actually work?
What I am saying is we can only work with what we know and we must humbly acknowledge that there are questions beyond our scope to answer. Many philosophers throughout history do not seem to share that humble acknowledgement.
Have you ever studied the history of philosophy?
The whole history of philosophy is the history of people proposing hypotheses and later thinkers criticising those ideas and trying to propose better ones. Plato (who you tried to criticise for being dogmatic) is known for his portrayals of what is called 'Socratic dialogue'. Somebody would ask a question, somebody would venture an answer, that answer would be criticised, a better answer proposed that took account of the criticisms, and on it went. Some of Plato's Socratic dialogues never reach a final conclusion.
Socratic method - Wikipedia
And after Plato's death, his academy later went through a skeptical phase where they started to question whether it was even possible to get final answers to many disputed questions. Some of them started to approach a surprisingly modern sounding idea that absolute knowledge of truth and falsity is impossible and that all human beings have access to is varying degrees of plausibility.
Academic skepticism - Wikipedia
What is my premise. A schism occurred in Western Philosophy that resulted in Science being considered separate from it's parent, Philosophy, both in purpose and method. And I am asking, is this true? Is Science different in purpose and method?
I am in no way criticizing the evolving development of Western thought, nor am a I criticizing the valuable contributions to Western thought by all the philosophers who have come before us.
However, if the scientific approach to answering these same fundamental questions is a measurable improvement, an advancement in best practices to tackle these questions, should not these best practices be adopted by the whole of Philosophy?
I am arguing that there should not be a schism. That it is all still the same purpose, the same goal, and as such should all be conducted under the same best practices.
There seems to be lots of acknowledgement of the problems facing Science, but I have yet to see any acknowledgement of any problems in the way Philosophy continues to be practiced.