You are saying לּוֹ isn't "himself"? Here are some uses: "Behold, thy brother Esau, as touching thee, doth comfort himself, purposing to kill thee." Who else was he comforting?
What? I think you are trying to quote Gen 27:42 and the operative part is
וַתֹּ֣אמֶר אֵלָ֔יו הִנֵּה֙ עֵשָׂ֣ו אָחִ֔יךָ מִתְנַחֵ֥ם לְךָ֖ לְהׇרְגֶֽךָ
"And she said to him, here is Esau, your brother, being comforted about you, to kill you." (my translation)
Note that the word לּוֹ is NOT in the verse. What is in the verse is לְךָ֖ which, literally, means "to you" but Ramban exaplins a biblical practice of replacing a Bet with a Lamed so the word could be understood as "b'cha" which is "in (regards to) you". Now you are supporting the argument that l'cha means "himself" which is also, at least generally, wrong, but also undercuts what you thought your argument was about "lo".
That Hebrew word "lo" means "to him". If you want to derive or interpret that it means to a specific person, then say "according to my interpretation, it means..." and explain why. In the verse about the binding of Isaac, there is more than one male role so assuming a reflexive pronoun isn't inevitable.
"Then Pharaoh sent and called Joseph, and they brought him hastily out of the dungeon: and he shaved himself, and changed his raiment, and came in unto Pharaoh." Joseph shaved someone other than himself?
What a strange verse to quote -- here is the hebrew
וַיִּשְׁלַ֤ח פַּרְעֹה֙ וַיִּקְרָ֣א אֶת־יוֹסֵ֔ף וַיְרִיצֻ֖הוּ מִן־הַבּ֑וֹר וַיְגַלַּח֙ וַיְחַלֵּ֣ף שִׂמְלֹתָ֔יו וַיָּבֹ֖א אֶל־פַּרְעֹֽה
Note that the word you are defending, לּוֹ, isn't in this verse at all. In fact, the English is better rendered as "Thereupon Pharaoh sent for Joseph, and he was rushed from the dungeon. He had his hair cut and changed his clothes, and he appeared before Pharaoh."
Though even that is an interpretive choice about the exact meaning of vayigalach (and he shaved or and he was shaved). So, still nothing about "lo".
If you want to see the word לּוֹ, just look a few verses earlier -- וְשָׁ֨ם אִתָּ֜נוּ נַ֣עַר עִבְרִ֗י עֶ֚בֶד לְשַׂ֣ר הַטַּבָּחִ֔ים וַ֨נְּסַפֶּר־
ל֔וֹ וַיִּפְתׇּר־לָ֖נוּ אֶת־חֲלֹמֹתֵ֑ינוּ אִ֥ישׁ כַּחֲלֹמ֖וֹ פָּתָֽר׃
A Hebrew youth was there with us, a servant of the prefect; and when we told
to him our dreams, he interpreted them for us, telling each of the meaning of his dream.
"If his master have given him a wife, and she have born him sons or daughters; the wife and her children shall be her master's, and he shall go out by himself." He leaves his wife and children and goes out to be someone else?
Ouch, another miss on your part.
Ex 21:4 in the Hebrew reads
אִם־אֲדֹנָיו֙ יִתֶּן־
ל֣וֹ אִשָּׁ֔ה וְיָלְדָה־
ל֥וֹ בָנִ֖ים א֣וֹ בָנ֑וֹת הָאִשָּׁ֣ה וִילָדֶ֗יהָ תִּהְיֶה֙ לַֽאדֹנֶ֔יהָ וְה֖וּא יֵצֵ֥א
בְגַפּֽוֹ
Note! This verse actually has the word "lo" TWICE (I bolded it). But look at the English
If his master gave
him a wife, and she has borne
him children, the wife and her children shall belong to the master, and he shall leave alone.
The word "himself" is based on the final Hebrew word, "v'gapo" (which I assume to be related to guf, body, meaning "with his body" -- that is to the exclusion of any others).
גַּף (n-m) heb
- body, self (only in phrase, eg by himself)
- height, elevation
Source: מקור: Open Scriptures on GitHubCreator: יוצר: Based on the work of Larry Pierce at the Online Bible
So, again, you have done nothing to support your initial claim -- in fact, you provided 3 verses that completely contradict your claim! Well done.
What you really should have cited was Gen 33:17 in which Jacob, the only male character in the verse builds "for himself" a house. Strangely (and, man, am I having fun now!) the KJV has
And Jacob journeyed to Succoth, and built
him an house
Where the hebrew word DOES mean "himself" the KJV has "him."
Try again?