Well, your track record on accuracy is sub-par, so, let's see if it says what you think it says..
Everything I claimed is true, backed up by scholarship. This is pure denial.
You made it sound unclear by changing what Dr Baden said. He was very straight. The Bible borrowed from Mesopotamia, as was Dr Bowen, he said it's CLEAR.
Um, No, Joel. Nothing, absolutley nothing you have brought has discussed oral tradition. Nada-zip..
Ugg, I have to explain this? Mesopotamian oral stories were written down FAR before Israel was even a concept. Yes the Israelite Kings probably heard the stories then made up oral stories. But the clay writings and Gilamesh existed in 3500 BCE. So written or oral, Israel used Mesopotamian mythology as a source to construct a flood and creation myth. Probably Eden and Adam and Eve as well.
Dr. Baden said none of it is clear. He's your favorite, but you are ignoring him..
This is where the evidence points. That they came from Canaan is clear. He said this. The syncretism isn't doubted? Those are my points.
But I'll have someone say it clear.
1:25
OT scholars will say Genesis is using a Mesopotamian background and apologist will say
“Well no, there is no literary evidence that shows it borrowed, we cannot show literal evidence”…”it was in the air”….”how do you know it wasn’t true”…….somehow downplaying the Mesopotamian background…
2:57 Dr Josh Bowen - there is no question as far as Biblical scholars and Assyriologists are concerned that the Biblical text is much later than Mesopotamian text and it’s borrowing directly or subtly from Mesopotamia.
References monograph - Subtle Citation, Allusion and Translation in the Hebrew Bible by Z. Zevit. Explains intertexuality and what Hebrew Bible i
HEY, 3:13 - THERE IS NO QUESTION IT IS BORROWING SUBTLEY OR DIRECTLY TEXT FROM MESOPOTAMIA
23:22
“(Well we don’t know which came first), is nonsense, we do know. The textual tradition for the flood story is much much earlier than the Biblical text. Israel is NOT EVEN A……”
HEY - Well we don’t know which came first), is nonsense, we do know. The textual tradition for the flood story is much much earlier than the Biblical text. Israel is NOT EVEN A……”
not clear???????????????????????????????????????????????????
Well then lets get Dr Majors to literally say "it's CLEAR that there is enough evidence to say there is some borrowing , theologically or textually. He cautions against finding "parallelmania" but he does that because there is a scholarly methodology to saying if a text was sourced which scholars use to determine while amateurs can make mistakes. However they are CLEAR and I'm not doing it myself but relying on consensus opinion.
Mesopotamian Parallels To The Bible
36:12
DrJim Majors
Joel, do you know what any of this means? None of this is evidence that Yahweh had a consort..
With denial it can mean whatever you want, and you will use that. But a plain reading isn't hard (for some) I mean, a scholar said "there is no question...." and you came away with "no it doesn't show any syncretism"
Cool, Ive got an apologist on my hands. Ok, I get it. I leave you to your delusions.
anyway, for anyone else reading.
Conclusion
Through examining the various proposals that have been made for elucidating ʾ
šrth from KA and KQom we have been able to establish that it most likely has reference to a common noun denoting YHWH’s female partner: “his
asherah.” This understanding of the phrase not only does no violence to the evidence that inscriptional
asherah is a female deity paired with YHWH, but it also harmonizes best with the lexical-syntactic evidence that
asherah is declined with a pronominal suffix with YHWH as the antecedent.
…we can begin by pointing out that the argument in favor of interpreting ʾ
šrth as a deity is in fact functional in nature and has fairly little to do with the lexical-semantic value of the term
asherah as used in other NWS texts. The argument combines a number of factors both internal and external to the inscriptions, which can be listed in the order of their importance:
This is evidence that the inscription is referring to a deity. That's all..
There is other lines of evidence that suggest the deity is Ashera to which you will cry about how it's this or that. Boo hoo. I'll stick with the scholarship and until evidence demonstrates something else the experts analysis holds. You will use denial and say "they didn't go back in a time machine so it's not true"
"This understanding of the phrase not only does no violence to the evidence that inscriptional
asherah is a female deity paired with YHWH, but it also harmonizes best with the lexical-syntactic evidence that
asherah is declined with a pronominal suffix with YHWH as the antecedent."
no thank you
Joel, please read this, and explain what it means in your own words..
act like a grown man then ask me to do something and I might
"The parallelism is marked syntactically by the
l- attached to both YHWH and ʾ
šrth and by the coordinating
w- that separates them.
[9] Regardless of the presence of a possible suffix on ʾ
šrt,".
K.M.A.
What does the "l-" attached mean? What does the "w-" mean? Also, note that the suffix is missing..
Here is what it means -
Conclusion
Through examining the various proposals that have been made for elucidating ʾ
šrth from KA and KQom we have been able to establish that it most likely has reference to a common noun denoting YHWH’s female partner: “his
asherah.” This understanding of the phrase not only does no violence to the evidence that inscriptional
asherah is a female deity paired with YHWH, but it also harmonizes best with the lexical-syntactic evidence that
asherah is declined with a pronominal suffix with YHWH as the antecedent.
…we can begin by pointing out that the argument in favor of interpreting ʾ
šrth as a deity is in fact functional in nature and has fairly little to do with the lexical-semantic value of the term
asherah as used in other NWS texts. The argument combines a number of factors both internal and external to the inscriptions, which can be listed in the order of their importance:
Since you clearly have no idea what any of this stuff means, I'll read the article, and see if there is actually any evidence of "his" asherah.
Oh, right, luckily I have this thing called a "conclusion" because I'm not a scholar in that language.
Here, let me put it in text:
Conclusion
Through examining the various proposals that have been made for elucidating ʾ
šrth from KA and KQom we have been able to establish that it most likely has reference to a common noun denoting YHWH’s female partner: “his
asherah.” This understanding of the phrase not only does no violence to the evidence that inscriptional
asherah is a female deity paired with YHWH, but it also harmonizes best with the lexical-syntactic evidence that
asherah is declined with a pronominal suffix with YHWH as the antecedent.
…we can begin by pointing out that the argument in favor of interpreting ʾ
šrth as a deity is in fact functional in nature and has fairly little to do with the lexical-semantic value of the term
asherah as used in other NWS texts. The argument combines a number of factors both internal and external to the inscriptions, which can be listed in the order of their importance:
1) In the context of the inscriptions ʾ
šrth is invoked parallel with YHWH as an independent object of blessing. The parallelism is marked syntactically by the
l- attached to both YHWH and ʾ
šrth and by the coordinating
w- that separates them.
[9] Regardless of the presence of a possible suffix on ʾ
šrt, the syntax of the blessing implies that YHWH and ʾ
šrth are corresponding divine entities (Dever 1984: 30; Müller 1992: 28; Frevel 1995: 20-21; Köckert 1998: 165; Miller 2000: 36; Zevit 2001: 404; Irsigler 2011: 142; Mandell 2012: 140).
then K.M.A.
I'm not interested in re-explaining everything you blundered all over again, which you will do.
It's clear you are not going to be honest here. (see above on that lack of clarity post)