Yoshua
Well-Known Member
Hi Mountain,First off, I don't really try to reconcile anything concerning the subject as I don't consider it worth anything other than for people who like to argue to have something to argue about.
But, since you asked, I would reconcile Hebrews 2:16 in the following manner: Hebrews 2:16 "For verily not to angels doth he give help, but he giveth help to the seed of Abraham." (ASV)
I am sorry for you that your KJV so grossly mistranslated that verse but that was not my fault. I didn't do it. The words, " him the nature of", are complete additions to that text. Your KJV translators, being Trinity believers, desired what was there said to be about his nature and so they made it out to be even though it isn't so.
John 1:1 fits just fine with the image of God and the son of God that the scriptures very clearly say Jesus is and just as Adam clearly was. Sorry if that troubles you.
And as for your first line, that is just pure nonsensical sarcasm. I don't debate ignorance.
Added: I should have explained that what Hebrews 2:16 is in reference to a prophecy saying that God would send us help. This is what the ASV translators realized but the bias of the KJV translators caused of their Trinity belief blinded them from seeing. But it was not to those fallen angels that God sent that help, it was to the seed of Abraham, a man.
Ok. What is the perfect explanation why John 1:1, the Word was a god is small g instead of big G?
Do you believe that Jesus is a Mighty God or a Mighty god?
So Archangel Michael is the only begotten Son. How can an angel become a begotten Son and a Son of God?
Where is Archangel Michael when Jesus exists on this earth? Where is Archangel Michael before Jesus exist? Where is Archangel Michael when Jesus ascended?
Thanks