Orontes
Master of the Horse
No, it's not. If a government action has no effect, then it has no justification.
I don't know what the "No it's not" is referring to. As to efficacy questions: I don't know that state endorsement of marriage doesn't have an effect. I do know the state demonstrates an interest in and through the endorsement.
The above doesn't relate to my post. I take it you agree that there is no legislative act to support your claim.Please provide any legislative act that applies to the state of California that says that the state has a vested interest in creating as many little citizens as possible.
As to what you ask: one has only to note California tax code that provides a tax deduction for every child produced.
You defined your X as state sanction of marriage with zero population growth. You then said the X could be positive, negative or zero. The two views contradict, so I wasn't sure what you were about. I focused on the first claim and pointed out it was incorrect.In mathematics, a variable can be positive, negative or zero. Perhaps you encountered this concept in elementary school. I would have hoped that what I wrote immediately after I defined the variable 'X' would have refreshed your memory. I apologize for my assumption.
I have said the state has a vested interest in encouraging new citizens, quite right, but I've made no categorical claim on the results of that vested interest.Yes, you have. You've stated repeatedly that the state has a vested interest in encournaging the creation of future citizens. You've used this as the justification for your discrimination against same-sex marriage. Now... if you've changed your mind, you're welcome to say so, though I don't know what you'd base your position on then.
And in the meantime, the purpose of marriage is at the core of the question of whether that purpose is fulfilled by same-sex marriage.
No. the core question is state interest.
Note this post again: According to the UN's figures, China has gone from a population growth rate in 1950 or 1.87 to a current rate of 0.58 and a projection by 2045 of -0.32. Also by the UN: India has gone from a 1950 growth rate of 1.73 to a current rate of 1.46 to a projection by 2045 of 0.32. In both cases there has been a continual decrease for over fifty years that will continue at least into the mid-Twenty First Century. Is your understanding of a run away population this decrease? Is your understanding of a run away population any addition to population? According to the U.N. the U.S. has a current growth rate of 0.97. This is a difference with India of 0.49 and U.S. has a larger growth rate than China of 0.39. Do you think the U.S. has a run away population?No, they have increasing populations. According to the CIA World Factbook, China's population growth rate is 0.629% and India's is 1.578%. Both of these numbers are positive.
The above doesn't follow. I noted the U.S. population growth rate is decreasing. You ask what the ideal is. I reply that would require study to properly answer and then the above? The issue is the state sanctions/endorses a thing. Your disagreement with that endorsement is not relevant. The efficacy of that endorsement is not relevant. What is relevant is the endorsement exists as a reflection of the popular will. Such cannot be said for an imposition of a gay right to marriage as determined by four judges.So... despite not knowing what the ideal population rate is, you're certain that it's closer to the rate with state sanctioned marriage than the rate without. How is this possible?
You implied that state sanction of opposite-sex marriage is justified by states' desire to "secure a future citizenry". Marriage does not do this.
Marriage is the vehicle the state deems that can both can produce children and foster them.
No. it is a statement of fact. Most heterosexual couples do end up producing children. The state encourages this. Homosexual couples cannot produce.It's an over-generalization. Many opposite-sex marriages will not or cannot produce people, yet they're legal. Fertility and the desire to procreate are not tests for marriage, period.
As has been explained previously, one does not legislate from the margins. In general, heterosexual couples have the potential to produce. There is no potential for gay marriages.Right... which is why it's illegal for post-menopausal women and couples who don't intend to have kids to marry, correct?
The will of the people was to confine state sanctioned marriage to a man and a woman. Gays marriages have no potential to produce. Straight marriages do. That is a base difference.And the will of the people is that there be no test of fertility for marriage. Therefore, in regards to every term that the state has seen fit to impose but one, gender, same-sex marriage meets every requirement. And the determination of the State Supreme Court, based on the California Constitution, is that it is unconstitutional to make gender a requirement for marriage.
The State Constitution should prevail other legislation. The State Constitution does not note a gay right to marry. To assert it does is to ignore the text and defer to ones' personal politics over the obvious.Yes, and popular will is that the state constitution should prevail over other laws of the state... and that's what happened. If the people choose to change this arrangement or change the terms of the state constitution (which may very well happen with Proposition 8), then this would change things, but in the meantime, the will of the people has been served.
Note: you have a growing tendency for the sarcastic. As a poster with a history and as member of the site staff this is inappropriate. If you cannot discuss you ideas without giving way to your passions then you should divorce yourself from discussion.
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