It's more or less saying that the evidence for God is the same as for FSM.
Why is that so offensive to you? That's what I believe. Do you think that I should not express that opinion because some people might consider it extreme?
Evidence for God is anything evident to the senses that is better explained supernaturally than naturally. We have no such phenomenon that can't be explained without invoking gods, which is why gods appear nowhere in any scientific theory or narrative. Adding them add no additional explanatory or predictive value.
The same is true for the FSM. There is nothing better explained by positing its existence, so it appears nowhere in any science narrative. This is a salient observation to the empiricist. Maybe you saw my comment to Trailblazer: "The definition of existing is to occupy time and space and to interact with other existing objects and processes in time and space. Real things do that, and imaginary things do not."
When a god interacts with us at some place and time in a way that requires that it be a god, then the idea of a god will have more evidence than the idea of a FSM. But right now, absent any such finding, they have the same status - insufficient evidence that they exist and thus no reason to posit that they do.
Why is it then, that billions of people believe in God, but not the FSM?
Can you think of no other answer than that it is because one exists and the other doesn't? I can, and any such naturalistic explanation is preferred over one that requires that a sentient, supernatural agent exist. One only need examine their beliefs closely to see that these believers don't believe the same thing, which is consistent with contrived answers.
Nothing tethers believers to reality. They are free to create whatever gods they like with whatever talents and thoughts and motives they like, and they do, just as with language, which is why both can be illustrated as nesting hierarchies (trees). Contrast this with something that IS tethered to reality - the periodic table of elements, which comes from studying the elements. There is only one of these.
Religions meet bottom-up and top-down needs, which is why it is believed and why it is promoted. People understand structure and function as design (agenticity). People fear the elements and seek a means of controlling nature, which they believe spirits control, so they wish to appease these spirits with prayers and sacrifices. People instinctively think in hierarchies as children, and parents are the archetypes for gods - superior, more powerful, smarter, punishing but loving. That's the bottom-up pressure.
The top-down relates to who benefits from organized religion - kings and priests. Both of these demographics have an economic stake in promoting religious belief.
I had written, "neither exist in anyplace at any time or affect our reality" Perhaps you would prefer if I had said that there is insufficient reason to believe either exist.
Yes it does .. you are just avoiding the issue.
That was in response to, "it doesn't matter what Muhammad was."
Avoiding the issue? That was the issue. My claim is that if gods don't exist, it doesn't matter who wrote the holy books. I thought that we had settled that point. You didn't attempt to rebut it when I made it or after I wrote, "Can we assume that that point is settled and that you agree? I'm not asking if you agree that that god doesn't exist, just that if it doesn't, it doesn't matter what Muhammad was." You didn't respond a second time.
It doesn't matter to me who wrote the Qur'an or any other holy book if not a deity. That's also true for other books. Who was Homer? I don't know. What difference does it make? The books attributed to him don't change in significance if it is determined that Homer was actually three sisters writing anonymously. Who was Shakespeare? The question is interesting, but the answer doesn't matter for the same reason. Works of men stand or fall on their merit, not their source.
..if that satisfies you. It still means he was either deluded, or was fraudulent in his claims.
OK. But why would it matter which it was? This is frequently the issue, as with Trump and his claims about a rigged election. Does he really believe it? It might matter to a court of law, but not to me.