fallingblood
Agnostic Theist
Again, the idea of marriage changed. And the Bible almost doesn't even speak of marriage. What you're describing isn't a necessity, and it wasn't central. It was one possible idea, in a sea of ideas.Yes, I understand that,
You're really more supporting my position. It wasn't about bringing one into a home. There were different conditions, as you pointed out here, that could lead to marriage.However, as soon as marriage arrangements had been made and the parties were engaged, they were considered bound in marriage. Lot’s daughters were still in his house, under his jurisdiction, but the men engaged to them were termed Lot’s “sons-in-law who were to take his daughters.” (Gen 19:14) Although Samson never married a certain Philistine woman but was only engaged to her, she was spoken of as his wife. (Judg 14:10, 17, 20) Mary and Joseph were not married but their betrothal was viewed as binding and needing a divorce to break it.
How accurate can that genealogy be if Matthew and Luke's versions constantly contradict each other. From what son of David did Jesus come from? One says Nathan, the other says Solomon. Who was the father of Joseph? The two sources disagree.Marriages were registered. Under the Law marriages, as well as births resulting from the union, were recorded in the official records of the community. For this reason we have an accurate genealogy of Jesus Christ. (Matt 1:1-16; Luke 3:23-38; compare Luke 2:1-5)
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I disagree. Where I live, a well known business person has just transgendered from a husband and father of three, to a woman. Now, I'm sorry, but how doers that not mess up your children? What do they call this 'woman' now when they have called him Daddy all their lives? A child needs the balance of two parents, one male and one female. Role models are what shape future generations.[/quote] Not really evidence. Not at all. It doesn't even begin to be evidence. If those children grow up to be respectful members of society, and do great things, what would you say then?
That's the no true Scotsman argument. Of course Christian marriages involve both. That is why many Christians get divorce. That's why the Bible allows for divorce.A Christian marriage would obviously not involve drug addiction or domestic violence. If it does, it is obviously not a Christian marriage.
If we talk about unnatural sex, using a condom is not natural. Using any sort of toy or object along with sex isn't natural. Having ones tubes tied, or a vasectomy is not natural, nor is going on the pill or other birth control methods. If sex is to create children, as you said, then having sex after one is able to conceive, having sex when one isn't fertile, having sex on any day that doesn't lead to the possibility of bearing a child would be wrong.I disagree.....The act that produces children, whether a couple are fertile or not, is not condemned by the Creator of the marriage arrangement. Unnatural sexual practices mock the reason why sex was given to create children and a family unit. It isn't the primary reason for the act....its purpose is noble.
Do you follow all of the Jewish laws, or just the ones that agree with your view? If you're not a Jew, that law does not even apply to you. More so, Paul states that we are all sinful, but can be forgiven. Even when Paul possibly talks about homosexual acts, if you keep reading, he always says that all of those acts that he lists are forgivable, and that we should not judge others, as we are guilty of those vices as well.Leviticus 17:22...
“‘You must not lie down with a male in the same way that you lie down with a woman. It is a detestable act."
If a Christian is gay, there is no room for him or her to practice what God condemns. There is no ambiguity there.
Just read the next verse. Paul states, we are all guilty of those vices, but can be forgiven. Seriously, its the very next verse that puts the whole thing into context. All you have to do is read a bit further.Please.
What context completely reverses the explicit statement that those who live like this CAN NOT enter the Kingdom of Heaven to really mean that those who live like this CAN enter the Kingdom of Heaven?
Do you study Greek? I do. I can tell you that the only time the term arsenokoitai. appears in the Bible is in that one verse. It appears no where else. Most likely, Paul coined the term. It's one that really isn't used in Christian writings, or other Greek writings at that time. Because of that, we don't fully know what the term means, and that is why it has been translated to so many different terms. At most, if we translate it based on the two words, what is being condemned is a man who takes the dominate role in male-male anal intercourse. It speaks nothing of the man who is taking the submissive role.This is nonsense and your reference to Greek is a red herring.
Feel free to reject what the Bible says, millions of people do, but at least be honest about what it says.
I also don't reject what the Bible says. If I simply rejected it, I wouldn't have studied Greek in order to know what it actually says, instead of relying on a translation.
Homosexual acts are not condemned and more than judging others, or gossip. If you read verse 11, Paul states, clearly, that we are all sinful, but can be forgiven.I believe God makes it clear that marriage is rightly only between a man and a woman. Since homosexual acts are clearly condemned in the Bible, it follows naturally that nothing like homosexual "marriage" was even considered, much less sanctioned or allowed, in the Bible. (1 Corinthians 6:9,10)
And 1 Corinthians doesn't really even condemn homosexuality. At most, it may condemn the man who takes a dominate role in male-male anal intercourse, but it says nothing about the other individual. Nor does it say anything about homosexuality in general.
The specific audience is the churches in Corinth. He addresses the churches as a whole. The church in Corinth wrote him. In Chapter 7, he switches subjects, and answers their question. There is no specific audience. He is talking about all men and all women. In 7:8, he reaches out to all of the unmarried. I guess that is a specific audience, but not really.1 Corinthians 1:26
1 Corinthians 5:11
Here, he differentiates the Disciples, even from their family.
1 Corinthians 7:12-13
He is talking to a ''specific'' audience, this is made clear throughout the entire text; hence, why some of the rules seem out of the ordinary, so forth, or very specific.
There is absolutely no evidence that he is only speaking with the Disciples. He is speaking to the entire church.