Onoma
Active Member
Ah yes, three things destined to provoke ire when mentioned in the same sentence
Right up my alley
So, this thread is an offshoot from this thread:
Why Didn't God Leave Huge Quantities of Secular Evidence For Jesus?
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Right, so lets look at the fallacy in your thinking first, sub, since you seem to claim I am not able to use logic while at the same time invoking an informal fallacy in logic yourself
Argument from incredulity, also known as argument from personal incredulity or appeal to common sense, is a fallacy in informal logic. It asserts that a proposition must be false because it contradicts one's personal expectations or beliefs, or is difficult to imagine
Arguments from incredulity can take the form:
So, right off the bat, your argument is not even weak ( Hopefully you have something better to offer ). Personally, the 2nd preposition I cannot claim, because until I see some serious statistical analysis of what I will discuss in this thread, I retain some skepticism
But let's move on to some math, since you think I don't know how to " apply math to reality "
I claim that if the Bible is " divine ", and that if this is indeed demonstrable with mathematics, that in order for this to be taken as a valid statement,( " The Bible is divine " ) then " divinity " itself must first be rigorously defined
Not just rigorously, but objectively defined
Not only that, but it must be defined using traditions of priestly exegesis and not eisegesis ( numerology ) , so it must be based on actual traditions of literature from the period, and how divinity and math were related in literature in the antiquities
Now, before I get started here, does anyone want to first debate whether or not mathematics and divinity were closely intertwined in ancient literature prior to the Torah appearing ?
I understand that this is also a foreign concept to most ( The combining of sacerdotal literature, concepts of divinity and mathematics ), so I am willing to lay down a background for the discussion first, before we get to some math
Let me know, I'll give this first opener some time, and if you decide to skip this offer, we can get right to it
Right up my alley
So, this thread is an offshoot from this thread:
Why Didn't God Leave Huge Quantities of Secular Evidence For Jesus?
You may know a mathematical trick or two, but you clearly do not understand how to apply math to reality. + " People cannot even begin to reason on how to mathematically prove the Bible "
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Right, so lets look at the fallacy in your thinking first, sub, since you seem to claim I am not able to use logic while at the same time invoking an informal fallacy in logic yourself
Argument from incredulity, also known as argument from personal incredulity or appeal to common sense, is a fallacy in informal logic. It asserts that a proposition must be false because it contradicts one's personal expectations or beliefs, or is difficult to imagine
Arguments from incredulity can take the form:
- I cannot imagine how F could be true; therefore F must be false.
- I cannot imagine how F could be false; therefore F must be true
So, right off the bat, your argument is not even weak ( Hopefully you have something better to offer ). Personally, the 2nd preposition I cannot claim, because until I see some serious statistical analysis of what I will discuss in this thread, I retain some skepticism
But let's move on to some math, since you think I don't know how to " apply math to reality "
I claim that if the Bible is " divine ", and that if this is indeed demonstrable with mathematics, that in order for this to be taken as a valid statement,( " The Bible is divine " ) then " divinity " itself must first be rigorously defined
Not just rigorously, but objectively defined
Not only that, but it must be defined using traditions of priestly exegesis and not eisegesis ( numerology ) , so it must be based on actual traditions of literature from the period, and how divinity and math were related in literature in the antiquities
Now, before I get started here, does anyone want to first debate whether or not mathematics and divinity were closely intertwined in ancient literature prior to the Torah appearing ?
I understand that this is also a foreign concept to most ( The combining of sacerdotal literature, concepts of divinity and mathematics ), so I am willing to lay down a background for the discussion first, before we get to some math
Let me know, I'll give this first opener some time, and if you decide to skip this offer, we can get right to it
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