sincerly
Well-Known Member
JPS, NIV, NASB.
If they were directly translating the entire book of Isaiah from the Greek Septuagint Bible, I would understand that they would translate the Greek parthenos into English as "virgin" for this verse (7:14). But the main source was the Hebrew Masoretic Text (MT).
But when they (the KJV translators, for instance) were translating Isaiah 7, all of it came from the Hebrew Masoretic Text, except for verse 14.
Why did they do this? Why only one verse, did they use the Greek verse instead of the Hebrew verse?
I believed it is mainly so they (again, the KJV translators/editors) can exactly match Matthew 1:23 with Isaiah 14.
NIV translators followed the same pattern as the KJV. They used the Greek parthenos instead of Hebrew almah, even though they have MT available, for Isaiah 7:14 verse.
NIV publication should have used "young woman" in their verse and "virgin" in the footnote, to denote the comparison with the Septuagint. But they (NIV) didn't; they did it the other way around.
Hi Gnostic, Your claims of translators is all from man's opinion.
Your own, "I would", "I believe"-----those are unacceptable for factual evidence.
And the KJV is from the "original"
as seen in the preface. Also, the BLB Lexicon states that Isaiah 7:14 is from the Masoretic text..