sincerly
Well-Known Member
Originally Posted by sincerly
1. In Isaiah 7:14, a prophecy given by GOD, "almah" would not (be) translated by any designation but Virgin to denote "GOD with us."
It is only "incoherent" to those who refuse to see and understand. And "nonsense" to those who have rejected the Creator GOD. In the Scriptures concerning/portraying GOD, HE is NOT likened/symbolically described by any corrupt thing.
Unfortunate for your posting, I am "paying attention to what I am replying to"---which is the departing from scriptural meaning by you.
I do not read the Greek "Septuagint", but did pull up the English translation and the word "virgin" isn't used.(nor was it used in the KJV.) However, Gen.34:7, is this, "And the sons of Jacob came out of the field when they heard [it]: and the men were grieved, and they were very wroth, because he had wrought folly in Israel in lying with Jacob's daughter; which thing ought not to be done.". Yes, Dinah was a Virgin prior to the "humbling" . and vs.31 enforces the fact, "And they said, Should he deal with our sister as with an harlot"?
But it is relevant! Your drawn conclusions are based on different information.
Agreed, you did use it incorrectly.
Agreed, it is "incoherent nonsense" to believe that a "almah"=Virgin/young woman in the usage of by Hebrew writers doesn't mean has been sexually free unless the context indicates such.
Stoning was a deterrent to keeping down harlotry/"folly in Israel."
1. In Isaiah 7:14, a prophecy given by GOD, "almah" would not (be) translated by any designation but Virgin to denote "GOD with us."
Incoherent nonsense.
It is only "incoherent" to those who refuse to see and understand. And "nonsense" to those who have rejected the Creator GOD. In the Scriptures concerning/portraying GOD, HE is NOT likened/symbolically described by any corrupt thing.
You're not even paying attention to what you are replying to. I said the Septuagint (y'know... the one written in GREEK) refers to Dinah as a "parthenos" after she is raped/defiled.
Unfortunate for your posting, I am "paying attention to what I am replying to"---which is the departing from scriptural meaning by you.
I do not read the Greek "Septuagint", but did pull up the English translation and the word "virgin" isn't used.(nor was it used in the KJV.) However, Gen.34:7, is this, "And the sons of Jacob came out of the field when they heard [it]: and the men were grieved, and they were very wroth, because he had wrought folly in Israel in lying with Jacob's daughter; which thing ought not to be done.". Yes, Dinah was a Virgin prior to the "humbling" . and vs.31 enforces the fact, "And they said, Should he deal with our sister as with an harlot"?
Telling me which Hebrew word is used is all well and good... yet totally irrelevant to the point I was making.
But it is relevant! Your drawn conclusions are based on different information.
Which is that while the word "parthenos" was used to describe the woman in Isaiah 7... it was also used to describe Dinah after she was raped.
Which either means that the word doesn't mean what you think it means... or it was used incorrectly.
Agreed, you did use it incorrectly.
Incoherent nonsense.
Incoherent nonsense.
Agreed, it is "incoherent nonsense" to believe that a "almah"=Virgin/young woman in the usage of by Hebrew writers doesn't mean has been sexually free unless the context indicates such.
Stoning was a deterrent to keeping down harlotry/"folly in Israel."