Shermana
Heretic
The Reform are trying to get back with Rabbinical Oral Torah? On what planet exactly? Got a link that shows this movement back to Rabbinicism? Did "Reconstructionism" change its "Reconstruction" to be more Rabbinical these days? Regardless, the Rabbis can call me a heretic all they want, it's like Catholics calling Protestants "UnChristian". Maybe they should trademark the word "Judaism" and "Jewish" if they feel offended by various Torah-obedient groups calling themselves "Jewish" or using "Judaism". If Judaism = Rabbinicism, then you have to apply the same standard to Reform and Conservative UNTIL they are officially in line with Rabbinical standards. Now please prove that the Reform are "Trying to arrive back at a place anchored in Rabbinic tradition". A link on any emerging trends would be great for backing your claim here. As far as I'm concerned, Messianics tend to be far more Torah obedient.Considered heretics by the Rabbis. They and their successors decide who is and is not heretical. As for the Reform movement, yes, part of the problems that halachic Judaism has with it are akin to the issues that were had long ago with the Hellenics. But at least the Reform leadership is working on the issues, and trying to arrive back at a place anchored in Rabbinic tradition, and not cut themselves off from the Oral Torah and its fruits.
Please quote the exact verse here or give the verse number where it says Akiva abandoned Bar Kokhba as Moshiach, note that this is apparently written 5 centuries after the fact, and you are saying something about "authentic sources"? A link would be great like the one I presented.Gittin 57a.
So why can't it be a long unfolding process again? What Jews today are under "foreign subjugation" that are completely unable to leave or fulfill their lives as they wish? Explain.All Jews, everywhere; and that also includes throughout the ancient borders of the Land of Israel. Free of foreign subjugation and at peace with ourselves and the world.
And what exactly were the reasons that it was proscribed? How do they match up in comparison to what he actually taught? Many prophets were killed and persecuted for what they spoke of in the Tanakh as well.Even for non-trinitarians, Jesus is still the prophet of a proscribed religion.
Not exactly very specific.That is often discussed in halachic literature, and is usually up to the rabbis of the day; but all are clear that heresies that endanger the welfare and survival of the Jewish People are beyond the pale, including those which promote apostasy.
Yet its okay to use Talmudic references written 5 centuries after the fact? I do believe that Jesus did not teach to Non-Jews, it even says "do not go to the gentiles". The issue of Pauline Christianity and his Epistles is a well discussed one on this forum, which we can get into here if you like. So I ask again, with consideration to the Jewish Christian writings, how do we know the records we have of his words are NOT authentic? Why can't it be scribed/translated/written in Greek? We don't even have Aramaic and Hebrew writings about pretty much anything in the Jewish world in that time period. Do we?There is nothing from the era of Jesus' life, written in Hebrew or Aramaic, recording his words without pretension to divinity, addressed only to Jews and not to non-Jews-- since it is unlikely in the utmost extreme that Jesus would have taught to non-Jews. If there were, as I said, it would still likely be heretical, but it might not be apostatic.
Oh really? Says who? The Dead Sea Scrolls say otherwise, but as you said the Essenes were "heretics". But the Talmud also calls Sirach "Scripture". What now?The Torah had been canonized for 500 years by the time Jesus showed up.
Maybe on the discussion boards you don't.I don't need to defend its reliability:
This is a debate board, you make claims, you back them or you forfeit your argument.Ezra did that for us. Likewise, I need not defend the rest of the canon of the Tanakh.
Presumptive Circular reasoning.The entire rest of the Jewish People accept its reliability, beginning with the Rabbis of the Talmud. It is the texts of a heretical preacher, adopted into the canons of another religion, that must be subject to skepticism.
Jesus specifically said "Do not go to the gentiles". It's quite common to confuse Pauline doctrines with what Jesus taught, this makes up a huge bulk of my arguments with so-called "Christians" on this board alone. As for pretensions to Divinity, that's another story which involves differing interpretations of John. Nowhere in the Synoptics however are these pretensions. Only in the disputed book of John, which is heavily interpolated to begin with.Unless a draft is found in which Jesus does not make pretensions to divinity, and does not teach Torah to non-Jews, accepting them as followers, and other such things no Jewish teacher of the time would have done, then even if the authors of the gospels were Jewish by birth, they were still apostates.
Maybe on the discussion boards I would.Give me a break....
You're not just arguing with me, you're posting publicly. If you don't want to back up your claims or take the time to post what you need to validate your claims, that's your problem, not mine.Yes. Plenty. Any copy of Mikraot Gedolot will get you some, and some can even be found in the Bar Ilan database. But I don't have time to translate: perhaps, like other serious scholars of the text and its commentaries, you might want to learn Hebrew and Aramaic to read them.
That's your opinion, and I presume the common Rabbinical opinion. However, the "Oral Torah" is up to debate, even the Rabbis in the Talmud don't agree with each other.Either would do.
No, there isn't. Torah is Torah. It includes the Written and the Oral Torahs both in one. They are indivisible, two halves of a whole.
I agree that the Torah is "clearly holy words", but I'd like to see some PAST Theology, not recent modern ideas, that Moshe did NOT scribe the full Torah. How you can imagine this as squaring with Rabbinical thought is beyond me. You'd think denial of Mosaic authorship of the Torah would be up there with any other "apostasy".No, that's a modern opinion. I give them inspiration because they are clearly holy words. If you're looking for modern theology on this, I recommend reading Rabbi Elliot Dorff.
Commentaries are just that, commentaries, and they are often in contradiction to other commentaries. In this case, it sounds like it ignores the very context of the situation of a gentile graveyard to begin with. It says "Only ye are designated men", now if you want to say it means something other than what it says at face value, that's fine, but I'd call anything that tries "damage control".You might want to actually read the commentaries, or at least the original text, before deciding what it means.
So you're adding something to Torah that's not there, it should have specifically said "Do not let your sons marry their daughters...unless they convert". Otherwise, I'll take what's written as it is. You can add and subtract to Torah as you (And the Rabbinicists) will, but to act as if it's 100% defacto truth as a point of argument will not fly in objective debate. You've never seen a man marry a woman who converts, but doesn't REALLY convert and ends up leading the man astray? Maybe it should have said "Do not marry their daughters unless they convert and prove that they really, really want to follow the whole Halacha". Additionally, we are allowed to take wives from virgins captured in war. Were we to only take ones that agreed to convert? Is that implied too?It stands to reason: if they had converted, there would be no problem. It shouldn't be surprising: intermarriage is a problem today, too: apparently none of the thousands of women and men involved in those today want to convert, either. So clearly...it happens.
You are welcome to your opinion of what you think the "Implication" of the verse is, as I am welcome to my opinion to consider it "adding and subtracting to the Torah". If you want to believe that NONE of the women in Ezra wanted to convert, you're welcome to your belief. If you want to believe that the Torah was IMPLYING something that's not written, you are welcome to your belief.That is the implication of the verse, yes.
[/quote]First of all, that is not what am segulah means in Deuteronomy. It means "a nation set apart [i.e., for a purpose]." And the verse in Isaiah has nothing to do with anything. It's part of a series of verses that proclaim God's uniqueness and supremacy: we are included in "the nations," lest we think we are His equal.
That would be going against the general context of Isaiah, you're welcome to your opinion, but I thought "nations" is usually referring to the FOREIGN nations. And I don't know you'd define being his "treasured people" as something other than holding a higher place to Him.
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