Then you once again prove my point, that the Rabbinicists are "a bit eager to let the Straw man do the representation". When you allow gentile interpretations to represent what the originals believed as if the originals believed what the later gentiles interpret them to be as if the minority view doesn't count, you prove ym case. Thank you.
The notion that the parameters of identity for a group are defined by what the majority of that group so define is hardly controversial or surprising. To dismiss it as a "straw man" is merely denial.
Okay, so thus, as I said then Reform and Reconstructionist shouldn't be allowed to be called "Judaism".
They are struggling with the commandments, it is true. But at least they believe in one, indivisible God, and they consciously align themselves with Rabbinic Judaism, and not with Christianity.
Halacha was not really established as an all-inclusive set of interpretation until long after the Shammai-Hillel debates and the Sadducee-Pharisee disputes. Even Rabbi Akiva I believe considered Bar Kokhba as the Moshiach or at least called him a "star", what makes his view not heretical in this sense?
The parameters of halachah were in flux through much of the Tannaitic period, but the foundations of it, especially concerning identity, seem to have been set quite early. The Tzedokim (Saducees), Isim (Essenes), Hellenicized Jews, and Shomronim (Samaritans) were all considered heretics from the get-go. And Jewish Gnostics, who claimed Jewish observance, but syncretized their beliefs with a theology of two godheads, were considered outright apostates.
As for Rabbi Akiva, he considered that Bar Kokhba might be the mashiach when Bar Kokhba rose up against the Romans-- taking, by the way, Rabbis as his spiritual advisors, and rejecting heretics-- but when Bar Kokhba failed, Rabbi Akiva acknowledged that he had not, in fact, been the mashiach, because the mashiach will free our people from foreign subjugation and restore the House of David to the throne...which Bar Kokhba had not done.
This makes no sense to what I said. You'd have to prove that Messianic Judaism teaches one to violate the Torah in order to group them in a different class than you'd group the Reconstructionists and Reform. And if you think that Reconstructionists and Reform Rabbis teach their followers to observe all the Mitzvot, I'd like to know which ones do, because I have yet to talk to any that insist on obeying the totality of the commandments.
It does violate the Torah, in that it is forbidden worship; and with any movement, heretical or orthodox, the issue is not on whether each and every commandment is taught to be obeyed, but which commandments are violated. Most teachings which verge on heresy are given lattitude; some heresies are rejected but their practitioners are not put in
cherem (excommunication); only those which lead to either assimilation with the non-Jewish community or
avodah zarah (forbidden worship) are rejected utterly, without quarter.
Anything associated with Jesus is the product of non-Jews practicing
avodah zarah. There is not a single extant document which is reliably able to be called an actual record of what Jesus the man truly said and taught. If there were, learning from it might be merely Jewish heresy, and not apostatic in nature. But since there is not, and all materials concerning Jesus and his teachings are the products of non-Jews and apostates, we reject everything associated with him. Not to mention, of course, that the Rabbis explicitly proscribe everything to do with Christianity, and thus its practice violates the Torah, as Oral Torah is just as much Torah as Written Torah.
So show some examples of the difference, especially in the light of Chronicles 29:20. Well I disagree with you there, do you have any other Textual examples to back your point or is this just a one-time anomaly in your view? Can you get some of these "Classical Biblical commentators" that all agree?
The word is used all through the Tanakh in both senses, I don't have time to write out every verse here. And I have no idea what you mean by the statement about the classical Biblical commentators.
Fair enough, you can see it that way. So we can see that perhaps when Jesus was "worshiped" it was no different than how. Just because Trinitarians "worship" Jesus as G-d doesn't mean the original Christians did. Again, you can't use a later gentile interpretation to represent the original.
I can and will when there is nothing of the original left, and the gentile texts and traditions are all that remain.
Why don't we look at what the Ebionites and Nazarenes believed instead? Why must the majority do the representation as if their beliefs were true as opposed to what the minority says?
If people want to believe in Jesus, fine. I would say that is Christianity, but if that's a label those people feel uncomfortable with, great. Let them call their beliefs whatever they like, so long as it is not Judaism. I may think that the idea of trying to revive dead quasi-religious cultures from two millennia ago like Ebionites and Nazarenes is silly, but I will not speak out against anyone claiming those names.
But you have your right to your opinion, but what do we call the beliefs of the Jews before the Rabbis and Talmudists?
"Ancient Israelite religion," is the usual phrase, I believe.
I wonder what Levite would say about one who denies Moses writing the Torah calling his religion "judaism".
Who did the physical authoring of the text is infinitely less important than whether one follows the mitzvot and accepts the covenant and respects the interpretive authority of the Rabbis.
I personally do not subscribe to the literal doctrine of
Torah le-Moshe mi-Sinai (Torah given to Moses on Sinai): I think if there was a historical Moshe, he was one of many authors who were prophetically inspired. Whether there was one historical Moshe, and one revelation at Sinai, or there were many authors and several revelations, the point remains the same: the covenant of Torah.
Perhaps Levite can explain what this passage from the Talmud means, Baba Mezia 114b:4-5, this is not one of those fake verses from those anti-Jew sites, this is an actual verse that says "Only ye are men", in comparison of Jews to gentiles.
Babylonian Talmud: Baba Mezi'a 114
"
only ye are designated 'men'."
What's that all about? Is that a mistranslation? What's the meaning? Is this a misunderstanding of Ezekiel 34:31?
It is essentially a mistranslation. The Talmud is extremely terse, and sentences are often structured so that the clear grammatical and literary implications of the Rabbis are often left unwritten, with the meaning being clear through the context of the
sugiya (pericope) as a whole; with the unfortunate result that one making a literal translation will not include them. But while the
sugiya in Bava Metzia is oblique, there is a parallel
sugiya in Yevamot 61a, which explains a bit better that the issue is not that
ovdei avodah zarah (practitioners of forbidden worship) are literally not people, but that in practicing false worship, they are debasing themselves spiritually, becoming like animals in their practices. Ramban (Nachmanides) and a couple of other commentators clarify that in this case, the
avodah zarah is polytheism; and the Meiri says that the passage refers only to Jews who practice
avodah zarah, thus cutting themselves off from their people.
Considering that Ruth completely clashes with the ending of Ezra (strangely no one wants to discuss the ending of Ezra, multiple dodges on that one so far, strangely), there's no way of proving that Ruth is describing the true lineage of David except for.....Rabbinical tradition. Meanwhile, you have no problem denying that Moses wrote the Torah, but you'll assume Ruth should be indisputably canonical and considered true without question.
Ruth doesn't clash with the ending of Ezra. In Ezra, the men married non-Jewish women. Ruth converted. Her declaration of conversion is still considered the original model for all such declarations in Jewish law.
The book of Ruth has as much claim to canonical veracity as anything else in the Torah. And whether she was the literal, historical ancestress of David or not, the teaching point is still quite clear: she converted, and she is at least credited with being the ancestor of the messiah, and therefore we praise and support converts, and do not reject them.
Further, a religion proclaiming privelege ( literally 'private law') or any kind of superiority based on genetics is the very definition of racism.
That is not what chosenness mean. It does not mean we are better than non-Jews. It means that the covenant between God and Israel is unique. But that is not exclusive language. Presumably the relationships or covenants God may have with other nations are also unique. And just as those ways are for them and not for us, so our ways are for us and not for them.