If you're not coming from a relativist stance, then can you agree that there is a spectrum from failed states like Syria up to very successful states like we see in Scandinavia? If so, do you see any correlation between the cultures and beliefs held in the failed states vs. the cultures and beliefs held in the more successful states?
None of this is relevant to the point I am making.
The point is not which ideology is better, it's that humanism has no basis in objective fact. All evidence points against it being 'true'. It may be desirable, but only because it matches a specific kind of subjective morality.
Anyway, dealing with your point.
The West rose to power on the back of the industrial revolution that happened when they were very much Christian countries. America still is. They then colonised most of the rest of the world putting others at a disadvantage.
They then were primarily responsible for the most violent century in history and some of the worst crimes. Human history is a long process, looking at the present and last 50 years only and drawing far fetching conclusions is folly.
Now it is seen that Europe has 'passed' these dark times, that they could happen again is impossible because of 'progress'. This myth is hubristic nonsense. After rise comes fall.
The West wins the 'murder count' easily over the past 100 years, so what is that evidence of?
Is the West more wealthy because of its moderate culture, or has a more moderate culture because of it's wealth?
What will happen in the West when it loses its power and wealth?
Too much ambiguity and too short a time frame to start making assumptions that are scientific rather than anecdotal.
Anyway, you didn't answer my questions about humanism. The whole thread has been about people sidestepping my point and wanting to discuss other topics unrelated to what I said.