Because no Christians ever used most of those books.Why are some books in the NT and some books equally ancient not?
"Overthrowing mainstream Islam" is giving them waaayyyy too much credit. They're just a bunch of insane terrorists who are gonna get theirs soon enough.Why is IS overthrowing mainstream Islam?
No examples or sources for any of this?The Coptic Gospel of Thomas may be 'Gnostic' (Which only seems to have meaning as a term of abuse,) but one only has to compare the corresponding Sayings of the surviving Greek fragments of a couple of centuries earlier to see that the work has undergone considerable redaction. The meaning has been shifted greatly across these few sayings; what was originally written and meant in the rest at present we have no way of knowing. What we can say is the existence of such divergent versions of one text would have done nothing for it's credibility.
Which is a shame. What is left of the Greek version contains a saying that looks to pre-date the received text of Matthew.
Having the name of an Apostle slapped onto it doesn't get it included, otherwise we'd have the roughly five trillion Gnostic writings being thrown in the mix. No one knows who wrote Hebrews, not now, not 1700 years ago when the first New Testaments were being put together into one codex, yet Hebrews still got in. And the Gospel of Luke flat-out says that it wasn't written by a person who personally saw or knew Jesus, but was writing down second- and third-hand accounts of the matter.Apart from a third to a half of the Pauline corpus, none of the New Testament writings can be attributed to the authors assigned to them by tradition. If they even existed, they would most probably have been dead at the time of writing. They didn't get in the NT because a disciple wrote them; they acquired the authors to give an excuse for them being included.
The only thing it should strike you as resembling is a manual for basic church order. Because that's what it is...Didache is instructive. When I reread it some months ago it struck me as resembling Matthew without Jesus. The teaching we are to imagine as coming from the Twelve in Didache seems to have been put into the mouth of Jesus in Matthew. Didache is itself in part a reworked Jewish text.
Then why did Moses say that God has no form that we should see Him, right after Moses supposedly "saw" God?Why is the gospel of John in the NT and even Coptic Thomas isn't? 1:18 is at odds with Genesis and Exodus. No one has seen God, several people have seen Yahweh-Elohim, including Moses and Jacob. Indeed Jacob has wrestled with him: that is the meaning of his alternate name, Israel. 8:44 makes clear what is going on here.
And Jacob wrestled with God disguised as a person, he didn't see God Himself.
There's no "Two Gods" mythology going on in the Bible, otherwise the vast majority of Christians would have believed in it. The Apostolic Fathers (those leaders of the Church who were companions and students of the Apostles) would have taught it. But we don't see Polycarp saying that, or Clement of Rome, or Ignatius of Antioch, or Papias.We are in the presence of a Two Gods theology; Jesus and his father, God; and the Jews and their father, Yahweh. 'My Bible doesn't say that!' you cry. Go and look at the Greek; translations go to lengths distorting the meaning.