I suppose either.Are you asking under the assumption that it happened historically, or within the self-contained logic, such that it exists anyway, of Exodus?
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I suppose either.Are you asking under the assumption that it happened historically, or within the self-contained logic, such that it exists anyway, of Exodus?
Do.you think.the question would make a good.thread
Neither: it means …There is a passage in the bible that states:
Exodus 20:3-5 (KJV)
3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me. ... Does this implicitly state that no other Gods but the Abrahamic God, exist? Or that other Gods exist, but one will not worship and bow down before them?
To me that doesn't really make matters more clear because the Bible was written by many different authors who all probably ha different views on the topic.
But as a Kemetic who doesn't believe a word in the Bible or that the story of Exodus even happened - As an outsider looking in, I see it that the authors of the Bible did believe in other Gods, felt theirs was the most powerful, and wrote their scripture in a way to convert and control as many converts as possible.
I don't believe in the bible too but since the bible is the book for Christianity than I would refer to the bible itself to define Christianity. So even as an outsider I don't think looking at one verse of the bible and making conclusions is fair because the author of that verse certainly did have other verses too.
The furthest point you can get in the bible about having more than one god is the trinity. This is how I see it.
Would it be accurate to say that the god honored by the early monotheistic traditions is the same god as the one honored by them now, though? The understanding of this god has changed so substantially, that the case can be made that it isn't the same god. In other words, I'm not really sure which understanding of the one-god could be said to be favored. The one that represents pure love? The one that represents transcendent, abstract being? The one that represents ruthless justice?
Yes, but what I was getting at with my OP, is that most Christian's say there is only one God, there are no other's, they are fake or constructs or stories. And when asked why that is, it is all too often that one quotes Exodus. But when one reads Exodus and the verses in question, it never says that other God's don't exist, and can't be believed in. Or that it is even sacrilegious to do so, only that it is sacrilegious to pay homage to those opposing deities.
Why do you think that your speculation about what God knew or thought has anything whatsoever to do with what the text says?I take it that God knew ...
I'd say that most Christians don't base their belief in only one God on the verses in Exodus alone, but on the entirety of the scriptures. There are many passages which indicate there is only One Creator God as opposed to false gods and/or idols of human creation or imagination. A few of my favorite related passages are...Yes, but what I was getting at with my OP, is that most Christian's say there is only one God, there are no other's, they are fake or constructs or stories. And when asked why that is, it is all too often that one quotes Exodus. But when one reads Exodus and the verses in question, it never says that other God's don't exist, and can't be believed in. Or that it is even sacrilegious to do so, only that it is sacrilegious to pay homage to those opposing deities.
Neither: it means …
there shall be for you no other object of worship.
The way she explains it, is she refuses to believe or see them as actual Gods that exist, and this seems to be common among monotheists.
What I am asking is, why? It never states that that is the case, or that that is even necessary. It just says that one cannot bow before those gods. Even when I was Catholic, I did not view other gods with disbelief, I merely did not pray to them.
Where does this, only the Abrahamic God Exists complex, come from in maintstream Christianity?
The verses you had quoted do not admit nor deny the existence of other gods. To understand the message the author is making, it is best read those verses in conjunction with the previous verse. "I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of Egypt, out of the land of slavery.” (Exodus 20:2) The God of Israel has the supreme authority over Israel because he brought them out of Egypt. It’s a kind of a bargain. God did this, now the Jews must do that.There is a passage in the bible that states:
Exodus 20:3-5 (KJV)
3 Thou shalt have no other gods before me.
4 Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth.
5 Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: for I the Lord thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me;
Now I am posing this question to all theists. Does this implicitly state that no other Gods but the Abrahamic God, exist? Or that other Gods exist, but one will not worship and bow down before them? I read it as the latter, maybe because I have polytheistic leanings. I am asking this because upon discussion with a friend, she said she does not believe in other Gods because in the Bible it says not to have any other gods before hers. That prompted my response that acknowledging that another god exists is no blasphemous or against that statement, as long as she is not worshipping hte other deity.
Anyways, thoughts?
EDIT: Mods, if this needs to be moved into scriptural debate please do so, I was unsure quite where to post this.
I highly doubt the Christian God of America (I'm from the US bear with me), is anything close to what the God of the NT was, who is even significantly different then the God of the OT. Now here is the kicker? Because of how different God appears in these two opposing books, are the actually different Gods?
It's the same God, it has to be. What's changed is the religion, to a point. God isn't defined by religions.I highly doubt the Christian God of America (I'm from the US bear with me), is anything close to what the God of the NT was, who is even significantly different then the God of the OT. Now here is the kicker? Because of how different God appears in these two opposing books, are the actually different Gods?
When faced by implicit statements, it is a good idea for the reader to look elsewhere in the book to see whether the implicit statement is supported or not, I would suggest looking up in the other verses in the bible and check whether it is possible that the verses you quoted imply that there are other gods.
It's the same God, it has to be. What's changed is the religion, to a point. God isn't defined by religions.