According to the new testament, and the meaning of the Greek word for sin, imperfection is sin. We can parse intentional from unintentional imperfection (sin) but…
I appreciate your intense logic and rational mindset, however, would you like Bible verses that faith and works are separate entities? One comes to mind immediately from Romans:
“Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law.”
Would you mind if I made a request of you? Kindly share either Bible verses or Mormon canonical verses to support your points. I will be more influenced if you share what you think God believes and shares with the world in holy writ rather than your personal philosophies. Thanks.
I’m familiar with the Matthew 24 passage. You know it is an eschatological passage and refers to a person who survives the tribulation being “saved” or rescued. However, did you know many evangelicals believe NO NT Christians will go through the tribulation? You need more context here. Also, you have not defined what “endured” means but you seem to think it is something inseparable from works, despite the quotation as above:
“Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law.”
I’m hardly rejecting liturgy or ritual, first as a Jew who grew up with eternal, unchanging fasts and festivals, and as someone who rebuked a Mormon poster above on this issue. But I am rejecting—from the Bible—the necessity for priestly intercession for me to be saved, unless you are referring to the priestly intercession of Jesus, as in Hebrews.
Again, commentary 200 years after Jesus, even heretical commentary, should not be accepted as “canon”. But you did mentioned John 1:12, “For He has given them power to become the sons of God.” Of course, that goes with the Tanakh statements about Israel all being sons of God!
Now, please explain using logic and verses, how every son of God is… God. Because not even the pagans believed such. Zeus’s children weren’t all gods, you know…
Master Billiards,
I read through your post.
-Per the Greek on a linkage between the meaning of sin and perfection: This notion is fundamentally wrong.
Hamartia (sin) and
teleios (perfect) are completely distinct. Per
Koine Greek h
amartia doesn't convey a moral element of guilt. It ties in with missing the mark, failure to achieve a goal or defeat.
Teleios refers to maturation. The attempt to combine perfection with sinlessness into a single concept is both bad linguistics and bad theology.
-Per your Romans reference: you have misunderstand the text. The scriptural reference you make illustrates the point. For one who understands Classical Greek rhetoric and the posture Paul is adopting, this verse does nothing to support your case. The law Paul references is the Law of Moses, not an abstract notion of metaphysical legalism. Paul is contending with Judification: having would be converts first become Jews a la the Law of Moses, before the Christian course would be available. Your reading of the Book of Romans is anachronistic. It doesn't relate to the Classical Mind for whom the text was written.
-Per Matt. 24:13 whether one takes the verse as eschatological or no, doesn't detract from my point. The predicate 'endure' is noted as a requirement of the subject to be saved. Endure entails the effort or act(s) of the subject, thus it is a work.
-Per priests: I'm not sure how you are defining priestly intercession. If you recognize a role for ritual in the salvatory process, then we have no argument. Ritual, includes a performer of the rite. You cite Christ's priestly role from Hebrews. This reinforces the point. No where in the text does it cite Christ is the only priest. Rather He is the High Priest, that necessarily entails other priests whose status the High Priest is over.
-Per
theosis: I quoted from the official Catechism of the Catholic Church and from a renowned Bishop of the Orthodox Church. Further, all the historical figures I quoted are from the orthodox tradition of Christianity (none are seen as heretics), being either Patristic Fathers, or in the case of Athanasius, the very fellow who was directly tied to the creation of the Trinity at the Council of Nicaea. The point is deification has been part of Christianity from its earliest phase.
As to your question on how "every son of God is...God": this was not my claim. I claimed deification is basic to Christianity and it is only within the ranks of some Protestants that this idea turned to a heresy. I can explain to you why this happened if you wish. But, for just some general scriptures on deification:
You noted John 1:12 "“For He has given them power to become the sons of God.” this was used by the Catechism of the Roman Catholic Church in explaining deification. Your response that this ties in with Tanakh statements about Israel being the sons of God does not challenge the base point. The point the author of John is making that all people who receive Him are thereby empowered to be the sons of God. This fits with a larger scriptural narrative on deification. One simple example:
"And if children, then heirs; heirs of God, and joint-heirs with Christ; if so be that we suffer with
him, that we may be also glorified together" -Romans 8:17
Let me explain the posture I take when engaging you. We come from different Christian Traditions that do not agree. You assume a different interpretive stance when reading the Bible than I do. If I cite verse X, Y or Z it's likely you will say verse X means something I don't agree with and the reverse. This means we immediately come to a cross roads. I can spend time explicating the verse, but that usually means spending time on the hermeneutic, rather than the larger topic. Because of this, the tact I take is to appeal to early Christian understanding to shed light on how the Jesus Movement understood things. These understandings are not the Bible, but shed light on the meaning of the Bible from the perspective of early Christianity. Thus one can see what interpretive model of the Bible carries greater weight. Does that make sense?
Earlier I noted points we've engaged on. These were:
1) The Penal Substitution Model (which I reject)
2) Christ can make one perfect (which I reject)
3) The Bible is inerrant. (which I reject)
4) The reality and importance of repentance (which you reject)
5) A Mormon Salvatory Model (this ties in with 1) above the difference being you reject free will where I embrace it.
6) Deification or theosis (which you reject)
Note 1: in a reply to another you mention creatio ex nihilo. Creatio ex nihilo is a product of the Third Century. It developed as Christians were trying to justify their faith vis-a-vis Stoics and Middle Platonists. It is not a stance derived from Hebrew Thought, but is a product of a Greco-Roman Mind. It is also bad logic.
Note 2: per Greek Myth and Zeus' philandering: all of Zeus' children were either gods, or demigods (depending on if the mother were a god or human).