It's still freewill. We are allowed to make choices.
Not if those choice were already made for us. Care to address the actual argument now?
What appears random to us cannot be truly 'random'. Randomness is simply a lack of known information.
That is why I referenced Newtonian mechanics. You can construct a non-deterministic scenario under Newtonian mechanics – one where you have complete knowledge and yet are unable to determine the outcome.
The question is what makes a future-oriented proposition true or false. If the events described in the proposition haven't happened yet, how can it be true or false? Its truth or falsity awaits the events described.
Just because we, as non-omniscient beings, cannot determine the truth value of a given proposition on the future doesn’t make it impossible for that proposition to have a truth value. What you seem to be doing is arguing against a concept of omniscience from a non-omniscient perspective.
So on this view, future-oriented propositions CANNOT have a truth value. It's logically impossible.
This doesn’t follow. The inability to verify a truth value doesn’t render existence of that truth value illogical.
And if they can't have a truth value, they cannot be known, even by God, for knowledge essentially depends on truth.
This is again arguing against omniscience.
So then, let's reconsider the issue of omnipotence. God can't (doesn't have the power to) make a rock so large that even he can't lift it because the situation called for involves a logical contradiction. Similarly, because propositions about the future have no truth value, they cannot be objects of knowledge either.
The analogy is flawed because foreknowledge isn’t a logical contradiction. You are claiming the non-existence of a truth value based upon an inability of a non-omniscient being to verify it. Also – in your flawed analogy you are using definitionally contradictory concepts, which are in no way analogous to foreknowledge.
However, I recognize that it's a viable philosophical option, and it appears you haven't considered it.
The argument on the OP rests entirely upon its premises (like any other argument). What you are doing is creating a reduced version of omniscience in order to argue against its conclusions. If omniscience is a false concept then the argument doesn’t hold. I understand that. But I don’t get why you are reducing omniscience from its definition of ‘all-knowing’ while trying to pretend you are not doing so.
My point about the truth value of future-oriented propositions shows that there are assumptions about how truth works lurking behind your puzzle, assumptions that are very questionable.
As pointed out, although never explicitly stated, my assumptions are based upon the definition of omniscience to be “all-knowing”. By arguing against future-orientated propositions you are arguing for a piece of knowledge to be beyond the grasp of an “all-knowing” being.
It's not a change in meaning, it's a clarification.
Redefining omniscience to be anything other than all-knowing is changing its meaning.
Just as the person claiming God can't be omnipotent because he can't make a rock so heavy even he can't lift it is making a mistake about the concept of omnipotence,
This analogy is false for reasons stated previously. Let me give you comparable analogy. Can a being be omniscience if it cannot know how to not know? This is example is a similar definitional contradiction to your analogy.
so is the one who claims God's ignorance of the truth value of future-oriented propositions makes him not omniscient is making a mistake about what the concept of omnisicence means.
I am not the one using and/or arguing for a scenario in which all-knowing does not mean all-knowing.
To move forward on this debate, you have to give an account of truth such that it makes perfect sense to ascribe truth value to propositions about the future.
Not if the concept follows directly from the definition of omniscience and there is no logical contradiction involved.
All-knowing is "simple" only inasmuch as knowledge itself is simple. And knowledge isn't simple by a long shot.
I don’t disagree with this. But I don’t see how what you are doing isn’t arguing against the concept of omniscience.
We don't know what "knowing" means, so what makes us think we know what "all-knowing" means?
I’ll bite on this and take the following tack. I’ll define omniscience a bit more rigorously for you, and in so doing will leave you to define knowledge:
Absolute knowledge set – the set of knowledge that cannot be added, a set such that every set of knowledge is a subset.
Omniscience – to possess the absolute knowledge set.