Paul declares the God of Israel dead!

[Desert Snake]

Anyone?

Well, you have made a mistake, actually. At first glance one might, infer, incorrectly, that Paul was referring to God. However if one reads it again, examining what is actually being stated, it is clear that Paul is talking about the various laws, are not 'binding'. We aren't under them.
Anyways, the clincher is that, in verse 4 we get the statement that we should be close to Christ/Jesus, to bring fruit unto God , ie worship, adherence unto God.
So, it actually is saying the opposite of what you are implying, to an extent. It is saying that the 'extra' laws are not for Xians, ie 'followers of Jesus', in reality of terms, and this is for the benefit of the worship of God.

 

[Desert Snake]

You could make an argument that Paul is saying the Torah laws don't apply to Christians, however your postulation in the OP is incorrect.

We're also dealing with context, examining this further.
Paul is addressing people who 'know' the Torah as having dominion over them, the colorful speech is describing how when Jesus 'fulfilled' the law, He made it so people were not under the 'old laws'. To an extent we know this to be true. However in defense of the 'Torah' itself, these verses are talking specifically about the Torah having 'dominion' over people. This is different from 'adherence' to, to reading, etc. Like the 'Temple' might have dominion over someone, but not a Christian. Doesn't mean everything previous to Jesus has no meaning.

 

[Simplelogic]

This is the OP^




Well, you have made a mistake, actually. At first glance one might, infer, incorrectly, that Paul was referring to God. However if one reads it again, examining what is actually being stated, it is clear that Paul is talking about the various laws, are not 'binding'. We aren't under them.
Anyways, the clincher is that, in verse 4 we get the statement that we should be close to Christ/Jesus, to bring fruit unto God , ie worship, adherence unto God.
So, it actually is saying the opposite of what you are implying, to an extent. It is saying that the 'extra' laws are not for Xians, ie 'followers of Jesus', in reality of terms, and this is for the benefit of the worship of God.

Thanks for the reply but I still believe I have a case here.

Can you tell me who the husband was who died to free people from the law? Paul makes it very clear that someone died in order for the law to be negated.

 

[Desert Snake]

To clarify, the analogy here is actually the letting up of the obligation.

 

[Simplelogic]

I think he is using that as an analogy. It isn't literal. Paul is describing something in the law, that lets loose the wife from an obligation. Any analogy like that could have been used, I think.

This is a little more than an analogy. He is describing, to Jews (who know the law), why the law of Moses is no longer applicable. He makes it very clear that there was a death which caused this change. I'm not sure this is something that can be shrugged off so easily.

 

[roger1440]

When Christ died and when we repent, Christ becomes our "Father" by adoption. We are "born again" and become his children. Christ fulfilled the Law of Moses and we are no longer under that law. This does not mean that God the Father is dead. It means that we have a new relationship with Christ.

Who is "we"? The "Law of Moses" was written for Jews not Gentiles. I ain't Jewish, are you?