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Seriously, the boat everyone here is missing is that, sure, the bible does speak in limited places condemning the homosexual act.
What hasn't been mentioned is that, in the ancient world, they didn't understand homosexuality as an orientation -- that is, as a normal and healthy expression of sexuality. Since they had no concept of orientation, of course they thought the homosexual act was wrong.
Additionally, some of those passages do refer to slaveboy sex, battlefield rape, and other acts of violence, which are morally reprehensible.
But speaking about normal and healthy sexual relationships? The bible doesn't condemn it whether it's hetero or homo.
But speaking about normal and healthy sexual relationships? The bible doesn't condemn it whether it's hetero or homo.
He is absolutely correct. It is in 1 Corinthians.seriously? your either a liar or you've lost your mind
He is absolutely correct. It is in 1 Corinthians.
The bible cannot condemn the unknown.He is absolutely correct. It is in 1 Corinthians.
(I find it interesting that only male homosexuality was condemned in the Bible, though).
I'll get to that, but I should also mention that in Leviticus chapter 20 it does not say, in relevant part, "If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman..."
I hate the term "queer". In my generation, that was the epitome of an insult to a gay. It was synonymous with "Pervert" and "Freak". I attempt to change with the times, but that term evokes such emotion, it is extremely difficult to be rational. We are not "queer". We are not odd or strange. We are not freaks or perverts. We are as natural and normal as our heterosexual neighbors. We are just gay, homosexual or transgender. I have great difficulty adapting to that term.
With my venting done and my opinion stated, I won't speak on that further, regardless of which word you feel comfortable with.
In looking into cultural contexts, I have found this consistency, from Sicily to Iceland: Invariably, the one who preferred the "feminine" position were invariably scorned. Based on these findings, I conclude that these versus meant exactly what they meant; if not for both men, but for the man in the feminine position. Have you found evidence I have missed? If so, I would be interested in viewing it.
The Old Testament, I can easily dismiss. When it comes to the few versus in the New Testament, Paul's letters, who believes they have been "mistranslated and removed from their cultural context" and based on what evidence? Of course, I'm not hoping for an entire dissertation; but a point in the right direction?
(I find it interesting that only male homosexuality was condemned in the Bible, though).
Something just occurred to me: while you're right in pointing out that the Bible doesn't condemn monogamous, consenting same-sex relationships between equals, the Bible also doesn't portray marriage as a monogamous, consenting relationship between equals in the first place.Seriously, the boat everyone here is missing is that, sure, the bible does speak in limited places condemning the homosexual act. What hasn't been mentioned is that, in the ancient world, they didn't understand homosexuality as an orientation -- that is, as a normal and healthy expression of sexuality. Since they had no concept of orientation, of course they thought the homosexual act was wrong.
Additionally, some of those passages do refer to slaveboy sex, battlefield rape, and other acts of violence, which are morally reprehensible.
But speaking about normal and healthy sexual relationships? The bible doesn't condemn it whether it's hetero or homo.
Yes, but this is an old argument. Good observation, and well-thought out. My take-away from this is this: biblical marriage does. not. work. today. Whether we like to think so or not, we redefined biblical marriage a long, long time ago -- and we continue to do so. it wasn't so very long ago in this country that women could not own property and wives were socially inferior to their husbands. It really hasn't been all that long since we've adopted the concept of "equal marriage." And so, it is in THAT context -- and not in the context of "biblical marriage" -- that we have to work. And in that context, partners are equal, whether hetero or homo.Something just occurred to me: while you're right in pointing out that the Bible doesn't condemn monogamous, consenting same-sex relationships between equals, the Bible also doesn't portray marriage as a monogamous, consenting relationship between equals in the first place.
The Bible is the product of a deeply sexist age (ages, really). The type of marriage it envisions is one where at best there's an asymmetrical power dynamic and at worst the wife is merely the property of the husband. Biblical marriage is not a relationship between equals; it's an unequal relationship where whether you're the "top" or "bottom" is determined by sex.
Since the Bible assumes this power imbalance in marriage, and since the power imbalance is based on a difference of sex, I don't think the Biblical model of marriage could ever be made to apply to a same-sex marriage. The Epistles say that a husband rules over his spouse the way Christ rules over his church. A marriage between two men, then, would be like two Christs both trying to rule over each other.
So the more I think about it, the more I think same-sex marriage is incompatible with the Bible... not because the Bible condemns homosexuality, but because Biblical marriage assumes sex-based subjection that just doesn't work in a same-sex relationship.
Are you referring to 1 Co 6:9?
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1 Now for the matters you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.”
female homosexuality is also condemned as is incest and beastiality. Any form of sex outside of Gods design is condemned because it is outside of Gods design.
As the creator, he has the right to put us in our respective postions. When we take ourselves out of that position and put ourselves in another situation, it is sin.
Although it IS casting some doubt you not getting to that right away.
I mean, what if it DOES say "If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman..."?
I find you a bit suspicious since you don't yet know what it does say and nevertheless you claim KJV-translation is wrong. As if you say: "I first need to investigate my own language."
It's just that you don't seem seriously to me.
Or just very insecure eitherway.
It is after that.
He doesn't disagree with that statement but offers marriage as a resolution. So in other words sex is the issue cause its a sin. Marriage is an out that he happens to only give to heteros but not before condemning sex all together, lol.
It has always confounded me: the idea of sex being an inherently evil, counterproductive or undesirable thing that seems to come from many religions.
I would not be so eager to engage in the character assassination of someone you don't know.
I added my comment in regard to the 20th chapter of Leviticus because it, as well as the verse in the 18th chapter of that book, are the two verses that are trotted out to justify the proposition that Hebrew scripture contains a blanket condemnation of homosexual activity and I want to address both.
Just so you know, as a rabbi who did not enter the rabbinate until an age when many rabbis are about to enter retirement, I do not have a full time rabbinical position and so I continue to work a secular job as well. That means that the time demands I deal with sometimes intrude on the time I have to spend on this forum.
Now if you want to deal with the family that I spent time with yesterday following an unexpected loss in their family, go ahead and I'll have the time to more quickly move ahead with this thread.
Otherwise, sit down and shut up.