Where is your evidence he was targeting civilians?
I would argue that when talking about modern warfare, collateral damage among the civilian population should be assumed prima facie.
Given the treaty had been violated hundreds of times and multiple parties were no longer adhering to it, would you consider it still to have been in effect?
I don't follow your reasoning here. These are not international treaties that can be voided by one party breaching them, but international conventions, whose agreements do not cease if one party does not follow their restrictions. The rules agreed upon at the Geneva Conventions (the legal successor of the Hague Conventions) have not ceased to exist simply because many states chose to violate them.
If you want to argue otherwise - would you say that he convention on Human Rights is not in effect because human rights have been violated by a wide variety of states for the past decades?
Better still, had you been in charge of the Allies, when the Germans used gas, do you believe would you have refused to use it in return as it was a 'war crime'?
I fail to see how that is relevant to the argument at hand. Could you elaborate on your reasoning, please?
Repression started from day 1, it wasn't just 'Stalinist'
Repression is intrinsic to government, but the specific repressions you are alluding to did not commence until the Bolsheviks had secured their hold on Russia. Also, you
If you try to stop a regime taking power because you believe they will be tyrannical, then they prove to be tyrannical and kill tens of millions of people, you can factor this into the equation when judging people's reputations with hindsight.
Which is exactly why I have argued against putting up monuments to Churchill, the figurehead of a tyrannical regime that had killed tens of millions of people before he even took charge.
Note however, that I still would not consider the usage of poison gas on British people to be morally justified, despite the numerous crimes against humanity committed by the British Empire throughout its history as an imperialist colonial regime.
With hindsight, do you believe the world would likely have been better off without the Bolsheviks taking power? (and thus no Comintern so potentially no Communist Eastern Europe, China, Cambodia, etc.)
Hard to say, but probably not. The most likely scenario without a Bolshevik takeover I could see would have been a warlord scenario like in 1920s China. The KMT wasn't exactly less genocidal than the CPC, either, as demonstrated by the political purges and massacres they orchestrated when they set up their exile in Taiwan after the civil war.
But most importantly, no USSR (or a similarly centralized, and therefore oppressive, regime in Russia) may lead to an easy German victory in the East. Are you sure that the world would have been better off if Nazi Germany had won the war in the East?
I say yes, of course it would. The odds of the replacement being anything other than the springboard for the most murderous ideology in history are pretty high.
So you would say murdering the servants of colonial regimes was justified.
Overall though, with the benefit of hindsight, do you believe the world would have been better off had Winston Churchill never been born?
I don't think it would have made much of a difference, to be honest. The geostrategic circumstances that determined the course of the war did not suddenly change upon Churchill taking office.
For me, given the role he played during WW2, particularly making sure Britain didn't surrender in 40-41 thus ending the war with a Nazi victory, there is a chance that the world would have ended up significantly worse off.
You assume that Churchill was the only thing standing between a British surrender and total Nazi dominance, which, knowing the level of competence on display by Nazi leadership throughout WW2, I personally find hard to believe.
For that alone he deserves a respected place in history. He was also a popular figurehead at an exceptional time in history, and history affords status to those who lead in extraordinary times as representatives of the broader struggle.
Playing a significant role in the fight against Nazism/fascism buys you a whole lot of credit, and there is no certainty that without him, Britain would have fought on until the Nazis declared war on the Soviets
Yet I don't see you signing praises for Stalin, even though the USSR played at least as much of a key role in the defeat of Nazi Germany as the British Empire, if not moreso as they bore the brunt of German military operations 1941-1944, and in fact, you went out of your way to argue that the world would have been better off if the USSR had never existed.
So would you actually argue that the world would be a better place if Stalin had never existed, knowing that the USSR resisted Nazi Germany and was instrumental in its defeat? It seems that you're measuring with two scales here: On one hand, British crimes against humanity, both factual and potential, are easily excused and mitigated by their role in the defeat of Nazi Germany; the USSR, meanwhile, enjoys no such mitigating circumstances, and bears the full brunt of moral judgement.
How can you reconcile this discrepancy in moral judgement on your part?