CohenDavidson
Member
Heaven is the place of God's dwelling. (1 Kings 8:49; Matthew 6:9) It is the place from which Christ and his chosen "joint-heirs" will rule in his Kingdom. (Romans 8:16-17) Their rulership however is over earthly subjects. (Revelation 21:2-4)
"Hell"(sheol, hades) is a place of rest, not a place to be tortured. (Ecclesiastes 9:5, 10) We believe what the ancient Jews believed...it is the common grave of mankind.....it is cold not hot. In ancient times there was something called "helling potatoes". It didn't mean cooking them, but burying them.
The dead do not live outside of their body. There is no teaching of an immortal soul in the Bible. Souls die. (Ezekiel 18:4)
Adam was simply told that he would die and return to the dust. No heaven or hell scenario is ever given by Jesus as opposite destinations.
I suppose you believe in the regenerated Earth. I am not as well studied as I should be in that area. As for Hell, is it not described as a place of torment and anguish for the wicked? Verses throughout the New Testament are totally in support of that idea. Jesus spoke of a place called Hell very much. A place of torment and severe punishment for the wicked. I have read the verses you used to support the idea of a regenerated Earth. I agree that saints are considered "joint-heirs' with Christ. I, however, do not see how the verse in Revelation depicts a regenerated Earth. I do see, however, that this verse could be using figurative language to describe that place that is called the New Jerusalem. In Genesis 8:22, the Bible tells us that as long as the Earth is here, we will have day and night. Revelation 21:23-24 says that the New Jerusalem will not consist of the same patterns we have here on Earth. If that is so, referring back to Genesis 8, the New Jerusalem is not speaking of a regenerated Earth, but using figurative language to describe the Kingdom of Heaven which Jesus spoke of. God has promised to destroy the elements Earth and heavens, not regenerate it(2 Peter 3:10). This promise is very different that the one of Noah. This promise does not address populations, but rather the entirety of the creation. Again, I am not well versed in this area, but I still am not able to see the backing from scripture.
It is not a verse but a prophesy that leads us to 1914. It was used by the Jews to calculate Messiah's first appearance.
In the following link please scroll to: Why do Jehovah’s Witnesses say that God’s Kingdom was established in 1914?
Dates — Watchtower ONLINE LIBRARY
Too much to post here.
I tried reading some of this, but I'm sorry, you really have to stretch and run around a trees fifty times to come to these conclusion. Much too confusing. Again, this can not be true because this is counter to what Jesus said referring to the kingdom coming with power and Perter being to one opening the doors to the kingdom. the Bible attains too much support for the kingdom being established in Acts 2 for this conclusion to be true. When we are speaking of Bible and Bible teachings, it is pertinent to remain in the Bible. To say that all of these thing have had to happen to establish the time period of the "end times" is also not correct. The apostles considered themselves to be in the "end times" during their ministry. Jesus told the disciples in Matthew 24 that these "signs" will happen during their lifetime. In the same context, he tells them in verse 14 the the good news of the kingdom is to be preached as well. That is because the kingdom was established during this time period in Acts 2. This prophecy is fulfilled in Acts 2.
1.What are your thoughts on the verses I referred to in the previous thread about the kingdom? When referring to these verses, consider the "with power" portion. Mark 9:1 says the kingdom would "come with power". This clearly is not referring to the transfiguration. Later chapters in Mark describes how one is to "enter" into the kingdom. Peter was given power and the keys in Acts 2. In Acts 2, Peter tells the people to be baptized. Galatians 3:27 tells us that Baptism is what places one in the kingdom. The kingdom is referred to as the church and body within the New Testament( Matthew 16:18-19; Ephesians 1:22-23) If you are added to the church, as many were in Acts 2:47, then you are also added to the kingdom. If this is so , then the kingdom could not have been established in 1914, but in Acts 2, when many were added to it. Being in the kingdom = being in the church. Being in the church/kingdom = salvation (Acts 2 :47). Again, what are your thoughts on this?
2.Why is it that Jesus said throughout his ministry that the "kingdom was at hand"? That phrase "at hand" means imminent, or about to happen.
3.Why is is that John said he was in the kingdom in Revelation 1:9? This would be impossible if the kingdom was established in 1914.
4.You referred to Matthew 24, I am not sure how this has anything do with the establishment of his kingdom, rather, Jesus says in verse 34 that those specific events will happen during that generation's time. (the temple being destroyed, the fall of Romes) Side note... in the same context, Jesus refers to Hell, verse 51.
I do not want us to get off on writing a book, so lets address this specific issue first, then we will proceed to others
Since you’ve replied to @Deeje with
the same, I’ll let her respond; her comments will perfectly align with mine. We always “speak in agreement” as to our spiritual beliefs! (1 Corinthians 1:10) She’s a more eloquent writer. I’m not...I’m more of a talker.
Feel free to get in on the conversation! I do not mind at all.