james2ko
Well-Known Member
Why? He's talking about individuals. "each man have his own wife and each woman have her own husband." The meaning is that a man doesn't share his wife, nor a wife share her husband. The word "each" references an individual .
No. That would be inconsistent with your interpretation of discouraging polygamy. Paul started the discourse with men not touching (having sexual relations) with a woman. Thus encouraging celibacy. He goes on to indicate due to their sexually immoral conduct (apparently addressing reports of sex outside of marriage) it is better for each of them to have his / her own wife/husband. The NLT brings out the Greek the best: :
1Co 7:1 Now regarding the questions you asked in your letter. Yes, it is good to abstain from sexual relations.
1Co 7:2 But because there is so much sexual immorality, each man should have his own wife, and each woman should have her own husband
Yup. There's no sharing suppose to be going on.
Nope. There's is no premarital sex suppose to be going on.
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