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But his point is quite different to the greek philiosphers who said we should just focus on getting as much pleasure out of life as we can while we can. Solomons words are more about the vanity of mans way of life. That includes pleasure seeking.
His point is that we do not live very long, yet we pursue goals which are pointless vanities. And at the end of the book he writes his conclusion:
The conclusion of the matter, everything having been heard, is: Fear the true God and keep his commandments. For this is the whole obligation of man. For the true God himself will bring every sort of work into the judgment in relation to every hidden thing, as to whether it is good or bad.
So unlike the greek philosophers who's ultimate goal was to seek enjoyment and pleasure, Solomon points to our obligation to our creator and advises that we live a life that pleases God.
And why do you think he concludes his book with this advice?
So, Pegg, if you're right that the bible has not been influence by Greek philosophy (and you actually couldn't be more wrong) then why do you suppose the Book of John begins with referencing this thing the KJV calls "the Word", which in the original Greek is "Logos"? Where, O Most Knowledgeable Scholar Pegg, does that word, "Logos" come from?
ah, im no scholar but thanks for the vote of confidence
The scriptures, both hebrew and greek use the expression 'the word of God' very frequently. Any prophecy or instruction is called the 'word' of God. And Jesus himself is given this as a title. It doesnt mean that the writers are influenced by Greek philosophy... how do you know greek philosophers were not influenced by the bible?
It's very obvious where Hellenistic Jews got it from if you go by worldly sources...
Logos was used by Greeks, in the sense of how it is used in the Gospel of John, before there were Jews.
I don't care for proselytizing by any group; I don't care what brand of belief or disbelief they're pedaling. To me, it implies that their targeted audience is too stupid or otherwise unable to examine things for themselves and make a decision. I don't see any difference between theistic and atheistic proselytisers; they both have decided that their understanding is the only possible one, and they have set out on a mission to get people to accept their reality.
Sure. So-called "New Atheism" is inherently less dangerous than theistic proselitism, mainly because it makes no high promises and lacks the power to manipulate people into destructive actions.
but the hebrew scriptures use the term as well... and that goes back further then the greek philosophers
Deut 9:5*It is not for your righteousness or for the uprightness of your heart that you are going in to take possession of their land; in fact, it is for the wickedness of these nations that Jehovah your God is driving them away from before you, and in order to carry out the word that Jehovah swore to your forefathers, Abraham, Isaac and Jacob
Isaiah 40:8*The green grass has dried up, the blossom has withered; but as for the word of our God, it will last to time indefinite.
Ps 33:6*By the word of Jehovah the heavens themselves were made, And by the spirit of his mouth all their army.
Psalms 103:20*Bless Jehovah, O YOU angels of his, mighty in power, carrying out his word,
By listening to the voice of his word
Im pretty sure Greek philosophy doesnt have copyright on the phrase or expression 'the word/logos'
Anyone can use such expressions and it doesnt have to mean that the expression is being influenced by one particular source.
This thread is directed mainly towards adherents of the two largest proselytizing religions, Christianity and Islam. But anyone else is welcome to join in.
First Question: In your view, is there a moral or other crucial difference between New Atheists like Harris, Dawkins, Hitchens, and PZ Meyers trying to convert folks to atheism, and theists like Pat Robertson, Billy or Franklin Graham, D. James Kennedy, and John Hagee trying to convert people to theism? (I apologize for not including any prominent Muslim proselytizers, but, in my ignorance, I don't know of any. Maybe someone can help me out with that?)
Second Question: Would it invoke a contradiction to answer "yes" to the first question? And if so, is there some way that contradiction can be resolved?
Third Question: What other thoughts do you have about proselytizing -- both by theists and nontheists?