sandy said:
This could prove that Socrates was mortal. So would tha concept that he is dead. It in no way proves socrates existed except as maybe as an idea.
I'm sorry about being pedantic but I have not been able to understand what you meant by a "formal logical argument" in your previous posts since we appear to understand some terms, such as "philosophy", "logic" and "reason" very differently. The intention behind posting that syllogism was to ensure that you accepted a disamis syllogism as a valid formal logical argument and not to prove the existence of Socrates. Since you agree that this does prove that Socrates is mortal then I assume that you do accept the disamis syllogism as a valid formal logical argument.
sandy said:
This is still a logical fallacy called "Affirming the Consequent" which I have explained twice already.
Affirming the Consequent takes the following form:
P1 If P, then Q
P2 Q
C Therefore, P
If an argument is not in this form then it is not affirming the consequent because this is the definition of such an argument.
However my argument is in the form:
P1 Some P has the property Q
P2 All Q have the property R
C Some P have the property R
where P = I, Q = thinks, R = existance
The main difference is that my argument has 3 variables whereas affirming the consequent can only happen if the argument has 2.
sandy said:
The instantiation principle does not necessarily prove that something physically exists. It may only prove the idea that something exists.
The instantiation principle does neither of these things. It says that if something has a property then it necessarily exists since otherwise there would be nothing there to have that property in the first place.
In P1, I identify that something has a property. In P2, I identify that anything with a property must exist. C, follows from these premises.
sandy said:
I don't see this. Explain further please.
A disamis syllogism consists of a particular affirmative in the first premise, a universal affirmative in the second premise and a particular affirmative in the conclusion.
In my argument, the first premise is "I am thinking". This says that a particular thing (I) has a property (thinking). It is therefore a particular affirmative.
The second premise is "Whatever has the property of thinking, exists". This says that anything that has a property (thinking) is within a set (exists). It is therefore a universal affirmative.
The conclusion is "I exist". This says that a particular thing (I) is within a set (exists). It is therefore a particular affirmative.
sandy said:
When you said "I am thinking," you assumed the existence of what you were trying to prove. The "I" of the conclusion, "I exist," was already included in the assertion "I am thinking."
You are saying that the argument is question begging. It only matters that an argument is question begging if the assumption is unfounded. However, I justified my first premise. You'll need to show why my justification for
P1 is insufficient.
sandy said:
You can't prove that you don't exist. Proof presupposses existence.
If socrates is a man and if all men are mortal then socrates would be mortal. I have just proved that scorates would be mortal if socrates is a man and if all men were mortal. Therefore, I exist.
OR
If you consider "You can't prove that you don't exist" to be proven then you have proven your own existence.
Jistyr said:
Logically, I don't exist.
Premise - At some point in time there was nothing, but I am here now.
Inference - Something cannot come from nothing.
Conclusion - I do not exist.
Yet, here I am.
Logic is about the worst tool for explaining existence, so I recommend that you actually leave room for other types of philosophy.
That is a perfectly fine argument. The problem is that you haven't demonstrated the truth of your premises and so it is not a proof. Either the premise or the inference is incorrect or you do not exist.